Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

source: aim_basic_chgs_1-3_2-28-19.pdf

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a. Preface: AIM Basic Flight Information and
5-1-1. Preflight Preparation
5-1-3. Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) System
7-1-5. Preflight Briefing
b. 1-1-19. Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS) Landing S...
FIG 1-1-8, GLS Standard Approach Service Volume, is also add...
c. 1-2-1. General
1-2-2. Required Navigation Performance
5-2-9. Instrument Departure Procedures
5-4-1. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
5-4-5. Instrument Approach Procedure
d. 2-1-2. Visual Glideslope Indicators
e. 3-4-9. Obtaining Special Use Airspace
5-1-1. Preflight Preparation
5-1-3. Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) System
5-1-16. RNAV and RNP Operations
f. 4-1-16. Safety Alert
g. 4-3-21. Practice Instrument Approaches
h. 4-4-16. Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCA...
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i. 4-5-7. Automatic Dependent Surveillance-
j. 5-1-8. Flight Plan (FAA Form 7233-1) -
k. 5-1-8. Flight Plan (FAA Form 7233-1) -
l. 5-1-8. Flight Plan (FAA Form 7233-1) -
5-1-9. International Flight Plan (FAA Form
7233-4) - IFR Flights (For Domestic or International Flights...
5-1-11. Flights Outside the U.S. And U.S.
5-1-11f clarifies customs notification to foreign
m. 5-3-4. Airways and Route Systems
n. 5-4-5. Instrument Approach Procedure
o. 7-1-2. FAA Weather Services
7-1-5. Preflight Briefing
7-1-8. Telephone Information Briefing
p. Entire publication.
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1-1-34 and 1-1-35
1-2-1 through 1-2-4 .
1-2-6 and 1-2-7
2-1-5 and 2-1-6
4-3-26 through 4-3-28 .
4-4-11 and 4-4-12
5-1-17 and 5-1-18
5-1-28 through 5-1-32 .
5-3-10 and 5-3-11
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7-1-8 through 7-1-11
7-1-8 through 7-1-11
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a. 4-1-9. Traffic Advisory Practices at Airports
b. 4-1-15. Radar Traffic Information Service
c. 5-1-1. Preflight Preparation
d. 5-2-3. Taxi Clearance
e. 5-2-8. Instrument Departure Procedures
f. 5-3-1. ARTCC Communications
g. 5-4-1. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
h. 7-1-2. FAA Weather Services
7-1-3. Use of Aviation Weather Products
7-1-5. Preflight Briefing
i. 9-1-4. General Description of Each Chart
j. Entire publication.
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4-1-1 and 4-1-2
5-2-2 through 5-2-12
5-3-1 through 5-3-18
4-1-1 and 4-1-2
5-2-2 through 5-2-13
5-3-1 through 5-3-28
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a. 1-1-13. User Reports Requested on NAVAID
b. 1-2-4. Pilots and Air Traffic Controllers
c. 3-1-1. General
3-4-1. General
3-4-3. Restricted Areas
3-4-5. Military Operations Areas
3-4-9. Obtaining Special Use Airspace
3-5-2. Military Training Routes
d. 4-3-2. Airports With an Operating Control
e. 4-3-3. Traffic Patterns
f. 4-7-1. Introduction and Background
4-7-2. Lateral Separation Minimpplied
4-7-3. Operation on Routes on the
4-7-4. Provisions for Non-RNP 10 Aircraft
4-7-5. Operator Action
4-7-6. RNP 10 or RNP 4 Authorization:
4-7-7. Flight Planning Requirements
4-7-8. Pilot and Dispatcher Procedures:
g. 5-1-4. Flight Plan - VFR Flights
5-1-6. Flight Plan - Defense (DVFR) Flights
h. 5-1-8. Flight Plan (FAA Form 7233-1) -
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j. 5-2-2. Automated Pre-Departure Clearance
k. 5-4-13. ILS Approaches to Parallel
5-4-14. Parallel ILS Approaches
5-4-15. Simultaneous (Parallel)
5-4-16. Simultaneous Close Parallel ILS
l. 7-1-14. ATC Inflight Weather Avoidance
m. 7-5-13. Flying in Flat Light and White Out
n. Entire publication.
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1-1-15 and 1-1-16
1-2-6 and 1-2-7
3-4-1 and 3-4-2
4-3-1 through 4-3-31
4-7-1 through 4-7-4 .
5-1-8 and 5-1-9
5-1-21 and 5-1-22
5-1-25 through 5-1-32 .
5-4-35 through 5-4-64 .
7-5-11 through 7-5-14 .
1-1-15 and 1-1-16
1-2-6 and 1-2-7
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a. 1-1-9. Instrument Landing System (ILS)
5-4-20. Approach and Landing Minimums
3-7-5, Precision Approach Critical Area.
b. 2-3-5. Holding Position Markings
f. 5-4-5. Instrument Approach Procedure
g. 5-4-22. Use of Enhanced Flight Vision
h. 7-1-4. Graphical Forecasts for Aviation
c. 3-5-7. Special Air Traffic Rules (SATR) and
i. 7-1-11. Weather Observing Programs
7-1-30. International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Wea...
d. 3-5-8. Weather Reconnaissance Area
e. 4-1-21. Airport Reservation Operations and
j. 7-1-13. ATC Inflight Weather Avoidance
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k. Entire publication.
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600 Independence Avenue, SW.
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600 Independence Avenue, SW.
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a. It is a pilot"s inherent responsibility to be alert
b. It is the general practice of the agency to advertise by ...
c. The fact that the agency under one particular
d. This publication, while not regulatory, provides informat...
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3341 Q 75th Avenue
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1-1-1. General
1-1-2. Nondirectional Radio Beacon (NDB)
1-1-3. VHF Omni-directional Range (VOR) .
1-1-4. VOR Receiver Check
1-1-5. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)
1-1-6. VHF Omni-directional Range/Tactical Air Navigation (V...
1-1-7. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
1-1-8. Navigational Aid (NAVAID) Service Volumes .
1-1-9. Instrument Landing System (ILS)
1-1-10. Simplified Directional Facility (SDF)
1-1-11. NAVAID Identifier Removal During Maintenance
1-1-12. NAVAIDs with Voice .
1-1-13. User Reports Requested on NAVAID or Global Navigatio...
1-1-14. LORAN
1-1-15. Inertial Reference Unit (IRU), Inertial Navigation S...
1-1-16. Doppler Radar .
1-1-17. Global Positioning System (GPS) .
1-1-18. Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) .
1-1-19. Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS) Landing Syst...
1-1-20. Precision Approach Systems other than ILS and GLS
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2-1-9. Pilot Control of Airport Lighting
2-1-10. Airport/Heliport Beacons
2-1-11. Taxiway Lights .
2-2-1. Aeronautical Light Beacons .
2-2-2. Code Beacons and Course Lights
2-2-3. Obstruction Lights
2-3-1. General
2-3-2. Airport Pavement Markings .
2-3-3. Runway Markings .
2-3-4. Taxiway Markings .
2-3-5. Holding Position Markings
2-3-6. Other Markings .
2-3-7. Airport Signs .
2-3-8. Mandatory Instruction Signs
2-3-9. Location Signs
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4-1-6. Pilot Visits to Air Traffic Facilities .
4-1-7. Operation Rain Check .
4-1-8. Approach Control Service for VFR Arriving Aircraft .
4-1-9. Traffic Advisory Practices at Airports Without Operat...
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4-2-1. General
4-2-2. Radio Technique
4-2-3. Contact Procedures
4-2-4. Aircraft Call Signs .
4-2-5. Description of Interchange or Leased Aircraft .
4-2-6. Ground Station Call Signs
4-2-7. Phonetic Alphabet .
4-2-8. Figures
4-2-9. Altitudes and Flight Levels .
4-2-10. Directions .
4-2-11. Speeds
4-2-12. Time .
4-2-13. Communications with Tower when Aircraft Transmitter ...
4-2-14. Communications for VFR Flights .
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4-4-1. Clearance
4-4-2. Clearance Prefix
4-4-3. Clearance Items .
4-4-4. Amended Clearances
4-4-5. Coded Departure Route (CDR) .
4-4-6. Special VFR Clearances
4-4-7. Pilot Responsibility upon Clearance Issuance
4-4-8. IFR Clearance VFR-on-top .
4-4-9. VFR/IFR Flights
4-4-10. Adherence to Clearance .
4-4-11. IFR Separation Standards .
4-4-12. Speed Adjustments .
4-4-13. Runway Separation .
4-4-14. Visual Separation
4-4-15. Use of Visual Clearing Procedures
4-4-16. Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS I...
4-4-17. Traffic Information Service (TIS) .
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5-1-10. IFR Operations to High Altitude Destinations
5-1-11. Flights Outside U.S. Territorial Airspace .
5-1-12. Change in Flight Plan .
5-1-13. Change in Proposed Departure Time
5-1-14. Closing VFR/DVFR Flight Plans .
5-1-15. Canceling IFR Flight Plan .
5-1-16. RNAV and RNP Operations .
5-1-17. Cold Temperature Operations
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5-4-1. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Procedures .
5-4-2. Local Flow Traffic Management Program .
5-4-3. Approach Control .
5-4-4. Advance Information on Instrument Approach
5-4-5. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Charts .
5-4-6. Approach Clearance .
5-4-7. Instrument Approach Procedures
5-4-8. Special Instrument Approach Procedures .
5-4-9. Procedure Turn and Hold-in-lieu of Procedure Turn
5-4-10. Timed Approaches from a Holding Fix
5-4-11. Radar Approaches .
5-4-12. Radar Monitoring of Instrument Approaches .
5-4-13. Simultaneous Approaches to Parallel Runways
5-4-14. Simultaneous Dependent Approaches .
5-4-15. Simultaneous Independent ILS/RNAV/GLS Approaches .
5-4-16. Simultaneous Close Parallel PRM Approaches and Simul...
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5-5-14. Instrument Departures
5-5-15. Minimum Fuel Advisory .
5-5-16. RNAV and RNP Operations .
5-6-1. National Security
5-6-2. National Security Requirements .
5-6-3. Definitions .
5-6-4. ADIZ Requirements .
5-6-5. Civil Aircraft Operations To or From U.S. Territorial...
5-6-6. Civil Aircraft Operations Within U.S. Territorial Air...
5-6-7. Civil Aircraft Operations Transiting U.S. Territorial...
5-6-8. Foreign State Aircraft Operations .
5-6-9. FAA/TSA Airspace Waivers .
5-6-10. TSA Aviation Security Programs
5-6-11. FAA Flight Routing Authorizations .
5-6-12. Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic (ESCAT) .
5-6-13. Interception Procedures .
5-6-14. Law Enforcement Operations by Civil and Military Org...
5-6-15. Interception Signals
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6-5-1. Discrete Emergency Frequency
6-5-2. Radio Call Signs
6-5-3. ARFF Emergency Hand Signals .
7-1-1. National Weather Service Aviation Weather Service Pro...
7-1-2. FAA Weather Services .
7-1-3. Use of Aviation Weather Products .
7-1-4. Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA)
7-1-5. Preflight Briefing
7-1-6. Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories .
7-1-7. Categorical Outlooks
7-1-8. Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) (Alaska...
7-1-9. Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) (Alaska Only) .
7-1-10. Inflight Weather Broadcasts .
7-1-11. Flight Information Services (FIS) .
7-1-12. Weather Observing Programs
7-1-13. Weather Radar Services .
7-1-14. ATC Inflight Weather Avoidance Assistance
7-1-15. Runway Visual Range (RVR)
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7-5-1. Accident Cause Factors
7-5-2. VFR in Congested Areas .
7-5-3. Obstructions To Flight .
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1-1-1. General
a. Various types of air navigation aids are in use
b. Pilots should be aware of the possibility of
1-1-2. Nondirectional Radio Beacon (NDB)
a. A low or medium frequency radio beacon
1020 hertz (Hz) modulation. All radio beacons
b. When a radio beacon is used in conjunction with
c. Voice transmissions are made on radio beacons
d. Radio beacons are subject to disturbances that
1-1-3. VHF Omni-directional Range (VOR)
a. VORs operate within the 108.0 to 117.95 MHz
b. Most VORs are equipped for voice transmission on the VOR ...
c. The only positive method of identifying a VOR
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d. Voice identification has been added to numerous VORs. The...
e. The effectiveness of the VOR depends upon
1. Accuracy. The accuracy of course alignment of the VOR is ...
2. Roughness. On some VORs, minor course
f. The VOR Minimum Operational Network
1. Distance to a MON airport. The VOR MON
2. Navigating to an airport. The VOR MON
5,000 feet AGL. A key concept of the MON is to
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5,000 feet AGL through the GPS outage area or to a
3. Using the VOR MON.
1-1-4. VOR Receiver Check
a. The FAA VOR test facility (VOT) transmits a
b. To use the VOT service, tune in the VOT
c. Periodic VOR receiver calibration is most
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d. Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR Section 91.171) prov...
1. VOT or a radiated test signal from an
3. If a dual system VOR (units independent of
2. Certified airborne check points.
3. Certified check points on the airport surface.
e. A radiated VOT from an appropriately rated
1. The frequency normally approved by the
108.0 MHz.
2. Repair stations are not permitted to radiate the
f. Airborne and ground check points consist of
1. Should an error in excess of plus or minus
4 degrees be indicated through use of a ground check,
2. Locations of airborne check points, ground
1-1-5. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)
a. For reasons peculiar to military or naval
b. TACAN ground equipment consists of either a
1-1-6. VHF Omni-directional
a. A VORTAC is a facility consisting of two
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b. Transmitted signals of VOR and TACAN are
1-1-7. Distance Measuring Equipment
a. In the operation of DME, paired pulses at a
b. Operating on the line-of-sight principle, DME
c. Operating frequency range of a DME according
d. VOR/DME, VORTAC, Instrument Landing
e. Due to the limited number of available
1350 Hz. The DME or TACAN coded identification
g. Aircraft equipment which provides for automatic DME selec...
1-1-8. Navigational Aid (NAVAID) Service
a. Most air navigation radio aids which provide
b. A NAVAID will be classified as restricted if it
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c. Standard Service Volume limitations do not
FIG 1-1-2
40 NM
18,000 ft.
d. VOR/DME/TACAN Standard Service Volumes (SSV).
1. Standard service volumes (SSVs) are graphically shown in ...
FIG 1-1-4, and FIG 1-1-5. The SSV of a station is
1,000 ft.
FIG 1-1-1
100 NM
60,000 ft.
130 NM
2. Within 25 NM, the bottom of the T service
40 NM, the bottoms of the L and H service volumes
45,000 ft.
18,000 ft.
e. Nondirectional Radio Beacon (NDB)
14,500 ft.
1,000 ft.
1. NDBs are classified according to their
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14,500 AGL up to and including 60,000 feet at radial distanc...
15 NM
25 NM
50 NM*
75 NM
FIG 1-1-3
25 NM
12,000 ft.
1,000 ft.
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FIG 1-1-4
FIG 1-1-5
1-1-9. Instrument Landing System (ILS)
3. The system may be divided functionally into
a. General
1. The ILS is designed to provide an approach
2. The ground equipment consists of two highly
4. Precision radar, or compass locators located
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5. Where a complete ILS system is installed on
FIG 1-1-6
b. Localizer
3. The course line along the extended centerline
4. Identification is in International Morse Code
5. The localizer provides course guidance
8 NM
2. The approach course of the localizer is called
0 NM
1. The localizer transmitter operates on one of
40 ILS channels within the frequency range of
108.10 to 111.95 MHz. Signals provide the pilot with
6. Unreliable signals may be received outside
c. Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA)
1. The LDA is of comparable use and accuracy
2. The LDA is not aligned with the runway.
3. A very limited number of LDA approaches
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d. Glide Slope/Glide Path
1. The UHF glide slope transmitter, operating
2. The glide slope transmitter is located between
750 feet and 1,250 feet from the approach end of the
3. The glide path projection angle is normally
10 NM. However, at some locations, the glide slope
4. Pilots must be alert when approaching the
5. Make every effort to remain on the indicated
6. The published glide slope threshold crossing
7. Pilots must be aware of the vertical height
e. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
1. When installed with the ILS and specified in
2. In some cases, DME from a separate facility
f. Marker Beacon
1. ILS marker beacons have a rated power
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2. Ordinarily, there are two marker beacons
3. A back course marker normally indicates the
g. Compass Locator
1. Compass locator transmitters are often
15 miles and operate between 190 and 535 kHz. At
400 watts, are used as OM compass locators. These
2. Compass locators transmit two letter identification group...
h. ILS Frequency (See TBL 1-1-4.)
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i. ILS Minimums
1. The lowest authorized ILS minimums, with
200 feet and Runway Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet
1,800 feet), or (with Autopilot or FD or HUD, RVR
1,800 feet);
j. Inoperative ILS Components
1. Inoperative localizer. When the localizer
2. Inoperative glide slope. When the glide
k. ILS Course Distortion
1. All pilots should be aware that disturbances to
2. ATC issues control instructions to avoid
200 feet or RVR less than 2,000 feet, do not authorize
3. Aircraft holding below 5,000 feet between
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4. Pilots are cautioned that vehicular traffic not
1-1-10. Simplified Directional Facility
a. The SDF provides a final approach course
b. The SDF transmits signals within the range of
108.10 to 111.95 MHz.
c. The approach techniques and procedures used
d. Usable off-course indications are limited to
35 degrees either side of the course centerline.
e. The SDF antenna may be offset from the runway
f. The SDF signal is fixed at either 6 degrees or
12 degrees as necessary to provide maximum
g. Identification consists of a three-letter identifier tran...
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FIG 1-1-7
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1-1-11. NAVAID Identifier Removal During
1-1-12. NAVAIDs with Voice
a. Voice equipped en route radio navigational aids
b. Unless otherwise noted on the chart, all radio
1-1-13. User Reports Requested on
a. Users of the National Airspace System (NAS)
b. Pilots reporting potential interference should
1. Immediately, by voice radio communication
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2. By telephone to the nearest ATC facility
3. Additionally, GNSS problems should be
c. In aircraft equipped with more than one avionics
1-1-14. LORAN
1-1-15. Inertial Reference Unit (IRU),
a. IRUs are self-contained systems comprised of
b. INSs combine the components of an IRU with
c. AHRSs are electronic devices that provide
d. Aircraft equipped with slaved compass systems
1-1-16. Doppler Radar
1-1-17. Global Positioning System (GPS)
a. System Overview
1. System Description. The Global Positioning
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2. System Availability and Reliability.
3. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
4. Selective Availability. Selective Availability
b. Operational Use of GPS. U.S. civil operators
1. VFR Operations
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7-5-2, VFR in Congested Areas, for more
2. IFR Use of GPS
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90-100, U.S. Terminal and En Route Area
135.165). These rules ensure the safety of the
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129.17 and 135.65 to retain a non-GPS navigation
3. Oceanic, Domestic, En Route, and
90-100, U.S. Terminal and En Route Area
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4. Departures and Instrument Departure
5. GPS Instrument Approach Procedures
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30 miles of the airport/heliport reference point.
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1-1-13.) When GPS testing NOTAMS are published
468NM RADIUS CENTERED AT 330702N1062540W
10000FT, 354NM RADIUS AT 4000FT AGL, 327NM
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5-letter waypoints, VHF intersections, 5-letter
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1To determine equipment approvals and limitations, refer to ...
2Requires verification of data for correctness if database i...
3Requires current database or verification that the procedur...
4VFR and hand-held GPS systems are not authorized for IFR na...
5Hand-held receivers require no approval. However, any aircr...
i.e., installation of an external antenna or a permanent mou...
1-1-18. Wide Area Augmentation System
a. General
1. The FAA developed the WAAS to improve
2. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) has ...
3. Unlike traditional ground-based navigation
1575.42 MHz) to WAAS receivers within the
4. In addition to providing the correction signal,
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5. The FAA has completed installation of 3
6. GNSS navigation, including GPS and
b. Instrument Approach Capabilities
1. A class of approach procedures which
2. LPV minima takes advantage of the high
5-4-5, Instrument Approach Procedure Charts).
3. A different WAAS-based line of minima,
4. WAAS provides a level of service that
c. General Requirements
1. WAAS avionics must be certified in
2. GPS/WAAS operation must be conducted in
3. GPS/WAAS equipment is inherently capable
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4. Air carrier and commercial operators must
5. Prior to GPS/WAAS IFR operation, the pilot
1311160600- 1311191200EST.
1312041015- 1312082000EST.
7000N150000W TO 6400N16400W. RMK WAAS USERS
6. When GPS-testing NOTAMS are published
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468NM RADIUS CENTERED AT 330702N1062540W
10000FT, 354NM RADIUS AT 4000FT AGL, 327NM
7. When the approach chart is annotated with
8. GPS/WAAS was developed to be used within
9. Unlike TSO-C129 avionics, which were
d. Flying Procedures with WAAS
1. WAAS receivers support all basic GPS
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40 meters for LPV. It also provides vertical integrity
250" or above, and bounds the vertical error to 35
2. When an approach procedure is selected and
3. Another additional feature of WAAS receivers is the abili...
4. Both lateral and vertical scaling for the
0.3 NM to achieve equivalent performance to GPS
5. The WAAS scaling is also different than GPS
6. There are two ways to select the final
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7. The Along-Track Distance (ATD) during the
14 CFR Section 91.175 being visible, and must not be
1-1-19. Ground Based Augmentation
a. General
1. The GLS provides precision navigation
2. GLS displays three-dimension vertical and
3. GLS provides guidance similar to ILS
4. GLS consists of a GBAS Ground Facility
b. Procedure
1. Pilots will select the five digit GBAS channel
2. Following procedure selection, confirmation
3. The pilot will fly the GLS approach using
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FIG 1-1-8
1-1-20. Precision Approach Systems other
a. General
b. Special Instrument Approach Procedure
1. Special instrument approach procedures
2. General aviation operators requesting approval for specia...
c. Transponder Landing System (TLS)
1. The TLS is designed to provide approach
2. Ground equipment consists of a transponder
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3. TLS instrument approach procedures are
d. Special Category I Differential GPS (SCAT-
1. The SCAT-I DGPS is designed to provide
2. SCAT-I DGPS procedures require aircraft
3. Ground equipment consists of GPS receivers
4. Category I Ground Based Augmentation
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1-2-1. General
a. Introduction to PBN. As air travel has
FIG 1-2-1
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b. Area Navigation (RNAV)
1. General. RNAV is a method of navigation
FIG 1-2-2 illustrates several differences between a fly-by
FIG 1-2-2
2. RNAV Operations. RNAV procedures, such
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FIG 1-2-5
FIG 1-2-3
FIG 1-2-6.
FIG 1-2-6
FIG 1-2-4
9 DME west of PXR VORTAC, right turn heading
360", "fly heading 090, expect radar vectors to
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1 NM for 95 percent of the total flight time.
e.g., DME/DME or GPS, to improve overall
1-2-2. Required Navigation Performance
a. General. While both RNAV navigation specifications (NavSp...
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2 or RNAV 1 eligibility. As a safeguard, the FAA
b. PBN Operations.
1. Lateral Accuracy Values. Lateral Accuracy
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0.3 in the initial departure flight path. Before
90-105 for more information on A-RNP, including
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c. Other RNP Applications Outside the U.S.
d. Aircraft and Airborne Equipment Eligibility
0.1 to 1.0
0.3 to 1.0
0.1 to 1.0
0.3 to 1.0
1-2-3. Use of Suitable Area Navigation
a. Discussion. This paragraph sets forth policy,
1. Use of a suitable RNAV system as a
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2. Use of a suitable RNAV system as an
1. Additional information and associated requirements
2. Good planning and knowledge of your RNAV system are
3. Pilots planning to use their RNAV system as a substitute
4. The navigation database should be current for the
b. Types of RNAV Systems that Qualify as a
1. An RNAV system with TSO-C129/
2. An RNAV system with DME/DME/IRU
c. Uses of Suitable RNAV Systems. Subject to
1. Determine aircraft position relative to, or
2. Navigate to or from a VOR, TACAN, NDB,
3. Hold over a VOR, TACAN, NDB, compass
4. Fly an arc based upon DME.
1. The allowances described in this section apply even
2. These operations do not include lateral navigation on
3. Unless otherwise specified, a suitable RNAV system
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4. Pilots may not substitute for the NAVAID (for example,
5. Use of a suitable RNAV system as a means to navigate
2. If the above conditions cannot be met, any
6. For the purpose of paragraph c, "VOR" includes VOR,
d. Alternate Airport Considerations. For the
1. For flight planning purposes, TSO-C129()
3. This restriction does not apply to
1-2-4. Pilots and Air Traffic Controllers
a. Pilots need to maintain position awareness
b. During preflight planning, pilots should be
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c. If the pilot experiences interruptions while
d. The FAA requests that pilots notify ATC if they
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2-1-1. Approach Light Systems (ALS)
a. ALS provide the basic means to transition from
b. ALS are a configuration of signal lights starting
2-1-2. Visual Glideslope Indicators
a. Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)
1. VASI installations may consist of either 2, 4,
6, 12, or 16 light units arranged in bars referred to as
4, or 12 light units. Some VASIs consist of three bars,
16 light units. VASI installations consisting of 2, 4, or
6 light units are located on one side of the runway,
12 or 16 light units, the units are located on both sides
2. Two-bar VASI installations provide one
3. The basic principle of the VASI is that of color
4. The VASI is a system of lights so arranged to
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FIG 2-1-1
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5. For 2-bar VASI (4 light units) see FIG 2-1-2.
FIG 2-1-2
2-Bar VASI
6. For 3-bar VASI (6 light units) see FIG 2-1-3.
FIG 2-1-3
3-Bar VASI
7. For other VASI configurations see FIG 2-1-4.
FIG 2-1-4
2 Bar
2 Light Units
2 Bar
12 Light Units
3 Bar
16 Light Units
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b. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI).
FIG 2-1-5
3,5 Degrees)
2.5 Degrees)
c. Tri-color Systems. Tri-color visual approach
FIG 2-1-6
1. Since the tri-color VASI consists of a single light sourc...
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2. When the aircraft descends from green to red, the pilot m...
FIG 2-1-7
FIG 2-1-8
d. Pulsating Systems. Pulsating visual approach slope indica...
FIG 2-1-7.)
e. Alignment of Elements Systems. Alignment
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2-1-3. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)
a. Identification of a runway surrounded by a
b. Identification of a runway which lacks contrast
c. Identification of a runway during reduced
2-1-4. Runway Edge Light Systems
a. Runway edge lights are used to outline the
b. The runway edge lights are white, except on
2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is
c. The lights marking the ends of the runway emit
2-1-5. In-runway Lighting
a. Runway Centerline Lighting System
50-foot intervals. When viewed from the landing
b. Touchdown Zone Lights (TDZL). Touchdown zone lights are i...
c. Taxiway Centerline Lead-Off Lights. Taxiway centerline le...
d. Taxiway Centerline Lead-On Lights. Taxiway centerline lea...
e. Land and Hold Short Lights. Land and hold
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2-1-6. Runway Status Light (RWSL)
a. Introduction.
b. Runway Entrance Lights (REL): The REL
FIG 2-1-9 and FIG 2-1-12). When activated, the
1. REL Operating Characteristics - Departing
2. REL Operating Characteristics - Arriving
1 mile from the runway threshold, all sets of taxiway
3. What a pilot would observe: A pilot at or
4. When a pilot observes the red lights of the
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FIG 2-1-9
c. Takeoff Hold Lights (THL) : The THL system
1. THL Operating Characteristics - Departing
2. What a pilot would observe: A pilot in
3. When a pilot observes the red light of the
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d. Runway Intersection Lights (RIL): The RIL
1. RIL Operating Characteristics - Departing
FIG 2-1-9). Note that there must be an aircraft or
2. RIL Operating Characteristics - Arriving
3. What a pilot would observe: A pilot departing
4. Whenever a pilot observes the red light of the
e. The Final Approach Runway Occupancy Signal
2-1-9). When activated, the light fixtures of the PAPI
1. FAROS Operating Characteristics:
2. What a pilot would observe: A pilot on
3. When a pilot observes a flashing PAPI at 500
f. Pilot Actions:
1. When operating at airports with RWSL, pilots
2. Pilots must always inform the ATCT when
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3. Never cross over illuminated red lights.
4. Do not proceed when lights have extinguished without an A...
5. Never land if PAPI continues to flash.
g. ATC Control of RWSL System:
1. Controllers can set in-pavement lights to one
2. System lights can be disabled should RWSL
2-1-7. Stand-Alone Final Approach
a. Introduction:
FIG 2-1-10
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b. Operating Characteristics:
c. Pilot Observations:
d. Pilot Actions:
FIG 2-1-11
2-1-9. Pilot Control of Airport Lighting
2-1-8. Control of Lighting Systems
a. Operation of approach light systems and
b. Pilots may request that lights be turned on or off.
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FIG 2-1-12
FIG 2-1-13
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FIG 2-1-14
3 Clicks
5 Clicks
7 Clicks
3 Clicks
5 Clicks
7 Clicks
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a. With FAA approved systems, various combinations of medium...
b. The control system consists of a 3-step control
3-step control will turn on lighting facilities capable
3-step and 2-step lighting facilities can be altered in
c. Suggested use is to always initially key the mike
7 times; this assures that all controlled lights are
7 times within 5 seconds
5 times within 5 seconds
3 times within 5 seconds
d. For all public use airports with FAA standard
e. Where the airport is not served by an IAP, it may
2-1-10. Airport/Heliport Beacons
a. Airport and heliport beacons have a vertical
1. 24 to 30 per minute for beacons marking
2. 30 to 45 per minute for beacons marking
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b. The colors and color combinations of beacons
1. White and Green- Lighted land airport.
2. *Green alone- Lighted land airport.
3. White and Yellow- Lighted water airport.
4. *Yellow alone- Lighted water airport.
5. Green, Yellow, and White- Lighted heliport.
c. Military airport beacons flash alternately white
d. In Class B, Class C, Class D and Class E surface
1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with
14 CFR Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff and
c. Clearance Bar Lights. Clearance bar lights
d. Runway Guard Lights. Runway guard lights
a. Taxiway Edge Lights. Taxiway edge lights are
e. Stop Bar Lights. Stop bar lights, when
b. Taxiway Centerline Lights. Taxiway centerline lights are ...
2-1-11. Taxiway Lights
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2-2-1. Aeronautical Light Beacons
a. An aeronautical light beacon is a visual
b. The color or color combination displayed by a
2-2-2. Code Beacons and Course Lights
a. Code Beacons. The code beacon, which can be
b. Course Lights. The course light, which can be
2-2-3. Obstruction Lights
a. Obstructions are marked/lighted to warn airmen
1. Aviation Red Obstruction Lights. Flashing aviation red be...
2. Medium Intensity Flashing White
3. High Intensity White Obstruction Lights.
4. Dual Lighting. A combination of flashing
5. Catenary Lighting. Lighted markers are
b. Medium intensity omnidirectional flashing
c. High intensity flashing white lights are being
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d. High intensity flashing white lights are also
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2-3-1. General
2-3-2. Airport Pavement Markings
a. Airport pavement markings and signs provide
a. General. For the purpose of this section, the
1. Runway Markings.
b. Uniformity in airport markings and signs from
2. Taxiway Markings.
3. Holding Position Markings.
4. Other Markings.
b. Marking Colors. Markings for runways are
c. Pilots who encounter ineffective, incorrect, or
2-3-3. Runway Markings
d. The markings and signs described in this
a. General. There are three types of markings for
1 On runways used, or intended to be used, by international ...
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FIG 2-3-1
b. Runway Designators. Runway numbers and
1. For two parallel runways "L" "R."
2. For three parallel runways "L" "C" "R."
c. Runway Centerline Marking. The runway
d. Runway Aiming Point Marking. The aiming
e. Runway Touchdown Zone Markers. The
FIG 2-3-1. For runways having touchdown zone
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FIG 2-3-2
f. Runway Side Stripe Marking. Runway side
g. Runway Shoulder Markings. Runway shoulder stripes may be ...
h. Runway Threshold Markings. Runway
60 feet (18 m)
75 feet (23 m)
100 feet (30 m)
150 feet (45 m)
200 feet (60 m)
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1. Relocation of a Threshold. Sometimes
2. Displaced Threshold. A displaced threshold is a threshold...
i. Demarcation Bar. A demarcation bar delineates a runway wi...
FIG 2-3-6.
1. Chevrons. These markings are used to show
j. Runway Threshold Bar. A threshold bar
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FIG 2-3-3
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FIG 2-3-4
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FIG 2-3-5
2. Enhanced Centerline. At some airports,
c. Taxiway Edge Markings. Taxiway edge
2-3-4. Taxiway Markings
a. General. All taxiways should have centerline
b. Taxiway Centerline.
1. Normal Centerline. The taxiway centerline
12 inches (30 cm) in width. This provides a visual cue
1. Continuous Markings. These consist of a
2. Dashed Markings. These markings are
d. Taxi Shoulder Markings. Taxiways, holding
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FIG 2-3-6
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FIG 2-3-7
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FIG 2-3-8
FIG 2-3-11.)
FIG 2-3-10
FIG 2-3-9
e. Surface Painted Taxiway Direction
f. Surface Painted Location Signs. Surface
g. Geographic Position Markings. These markings are located ...
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FIG 2-3-11
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2-3-5. Holding Position Markings
a. Runway Holding Position Markings. For
1. Runway Holding Position Markings on
2. Runway Holding Position Markings on
FIG 4-3-8) and Taxiing operations. For taxiing
3. Holding Position Markings on Taxiways
b. Holding Position Markings for Instrument
c. Holding Position Markings for Intersecting
FIG 2-3-17.) They are located on taxiways where
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d. Surface Painted Holding Position Signs.
200 feet (60 m). It is located to the left side of the
FIG 2-3-12
FIG 2-3-13
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FIG 2-3-14
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FIG 2-3-15
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FIG 2-3-16
2-3-6. Other Markings
a. Vehicle Roadway Markings. The vehicle
b. VOR Receiver Checkpoint Markings. The
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FIG 2-3-17
FIG 2-3-18
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FIG 2-3-19
FIG 2-3-20
FIG 2-3-21
FIG 2-3-22
c. Nonmovement Area Boundary Markings.
d. Marking and Lighting of Permanently
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FIG 2-3-23
e. Temporarily Closed Runways and Taxiways.
1. A raised lighted yellow cross may be placed
2. A visual indication may not be present
3. Temporarily closed taxiways are usually
f. Helicopter Landing Areas. The markings
2-3-7. Airport Signs
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FIG 2-3-24
FIG 2-3-25
2-3-8. Mandatory Instruction Signs
a. These signs have a red background with a white
1. An entrance to a runway or critical area; and
2. Areas where an aircraft is prohibited from
b. Typical mandatory signs and applications
1. Runway Holding Position Sign. This sign
FIG 2-3-24. The runway numbers on the sign are
FIG 2-3-25), while all other signs will have the
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FIG 2-3-26
FIG 2-3-27
2. Runway Approach Area Holding Position
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FIG 2-3-28
FIG 2-3-29
3. ILS Critical Area Holding Position
4. No Entry Sign. This sign, shown in
FIG 2-3-29, prohibits an aircraft from entering an
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FIG 2-3-30
FIG 2-3-31
2-3-9. Location Signs
a. Location signs are used to identify either a
1. Taxiway Location Sign. This sign has a
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FIG 2-3-32
FIG 2-3-33
2. Runway Location Sign. This sign has a
3. Runway Boundary Sign. This sign has a
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FIG 2-3-34
4. ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign. This
2-3-10. Direction Signs
a. Direction signs have a yellow background with
b. Except as noted in subparagraph e, each
FIG 2-3-35.
c. Direction signs are normally located on the left
d. The taxiway designations and their associated
e. If a location sign is located with the direction
f. When the intersection is comprised of only one
FIG 2-3-37. In this case, the location sign is located
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FIG 2-3-35
FIG 2-3-36
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FIG 2-3-37
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FIG 2-3-38
FIG 2-3-39
2-3-11. Destination Signs
a. Destination signs also have a yellow background with a bl...
b. Destinations commonly shown on these types
c. When the inscription for two or more
FIG 2-3-39. When the inscription on a sign contains
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FIG 2-3-40
2-3-12. Information Signs
2-3-13. Runway Distance Remaining Signs
FIG 2-3-41
3,000 feet of Runway Remaining
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2-3-14. Aircraft Arresting Systems
a. Certain airports are equipped with a means of
b. Arresting cables which cross over a runway
c. Engineered Materials Arresting Systems
FIG 2-3-42
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2-3-15. Security Identifications Display
a. Security Identification Display Areas (SIDA)
1. A description and map detailing boundaries
2. Measures used to perform the access control
3. Procedures to control movement within the
4. A description of the notification signs
b. Pilots or passengers without proper identification that a...
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3-1-1. General
a. There are two categories of airspace or airspace
1. Regulatory (Class A, B, C, D and E airspace
2. Nonregulatory (military operations areas
3-1-2. General Dimensions of Airspace
3-1-3. Hierarchy of Overlapping Airspace
a. When overlapping airspace designations apply
1. Class A airspace is more restrictive than
b. Within these two categories, there are four
2. Class B airspace is more restrictive than
b. For the purpose of clarification:
1. Controlled,
3. Class C airspace is more restrictive than
2. Uncontrolled,
4. Class D airspace is more restrictive than
3. Special use, and
4. Other airspace.
c. The categories and types of airspace are dictated
1. The complexity or density of aircraft
2. The nature of the operations conducted
3. The level of safety required, and
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1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL
10,000 feet MSL.
5 statute miles
10,000 feet MSL.
500 feet below
1,000 feet above
2,000 feet horizontal
500 feet below
1,000 feet above
2,000 feet horizontal
500 feet below
1,000 feet above
2,000 feet horizontal
1,000 feet below
1,000 feet above
1 statute mile horizontal
500 feet below
1,000 feet above
2,000 feet horizontal
500 feet below
1,000 feet above
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3-2-1. General
a. Controlled Airspace. A generic term that
b. IFR Requirements. IFR operations in any
c. IFR Separation. Standard IFR separation is
d. VFR Requirements. It is the responsibility of
e. Traffic Advisories. Traffic advisories will be
f. Safety Alerts. Safety Alerts are mandatory
1. Terrain/Obstruction Alert. A Terrain/
2. Aircraft Conflict/Mode C Intruder Alert.
FIG 3-2-1
18,000 MSL
14,500 MSL
1,200 AGL
700 AGL
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g. Ultralight Vehicles. No person may operate an
h. Unmanned Free Balloons. Unless otherwise
i. Parachute Jumps. No person may make a
3-2-2. Class A Airspace
a. Definition. Generally, that airspace from
18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL 600,
12 nautical miles off the coast of the 48 contiguous
48 contiguous States and Alaska within areas of
b. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment
14 CFR Section 71.33 and 14 CFR Section 91.167
c. Charts. Class A airspace is not specifically
3-2-3. Class B Airspace
a. Definition. Generally, that airspace from the
b. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment
1. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, aircraft
2. No person may take off or land a civil aircraft
3. No person may take off or land a civil aircraft
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4. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each
5. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each
6. Mode C Veil. The airspace within 30 nautical miles of an ...
10,000 feet MSL. Unless otherwise authorized by
c. Charts. Class B airspace is charted on
d. Flight Procedures.
1. Flights. Aircraft within Class B airspace are
2. VFR Flights.
122.750 MHz for the exchange of aircraft position
e. ATC Clearances and Separation. An ATC
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1. Separation and sequencing of VFR aircraft will be
2. Separation of VFR aircraft will be suspended during
1. VFR aircraft are separated from all VFR/IFR
2. VFR aircraft are separated from all VFR/IFR
3. This program is not to be interpreted as
4. ATC may assign altitudes to VFR aircraft that
f. Proximity operations. VFR aircraft operating
3-2-4. Class C Airspace
a. Definition. Generally, that airspace from the
b. Charts. Class C airspace is charted on
c. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment
1. Pilot Certification. No specific certification required.
2. Equipment.
3. Arrival or Through Flight Entry Requirements. Two-way rad...
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1. If the controller responds to a radio call with, "(aircra...
2. If workload or traffic conditions prevent immediate
3. It is important to understand that if the controller
4. Though not requiring regulatory action, Class C
5. Aircraft Speed. Unless otherwise authorized or required b...
d. Air Traffic Services. When two-way radio
1. Sequenced to the primary airport.
2. Provided Class C services within the Class C
3. Provided basic radar services beyond the
e. Aircraft Separation. Separation is provided
1. Visual separation.
2. 500 feet vertical separation.
3. Target resolution.
4. Wake turbulence separation will be provided
5. Pilots approaching an airport with Class C service
1. [Aircraft callsign] "remain outside the Class Charlie
2. "Aircraft calling Dulles approach control, standby."
4. Departures from:
1. Separation and sequencing of VFR aircraft will be
2. Separation of VFR aircraft will be suspended during
3. Pilot participation is voluntary within the outer area
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4. Some facilities provide Class C services only during
f. Secondary Airports
1. In some locations Class C airspace may
2. Aircraft proceeding inbound to a satellite
3. Aircraft departing secondary controlled
4. This program is not to be interpreted as
g. Class C Airspace Areas by State
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3-2-5. Class D Airspace
a. Definition. Generally, Class D airspace extends upward fr...
1. Class D surface areas may be designated as
2. Where a Class D surface area is part-time, the
1. The airport listing in the Chart Supplement U.S. will
2. Normally, the overlying controlled airspace is the Class
b. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment
1. Pilot Certification. No specific certification required.
2. Equipment. Unless otherwise authorized
3. Arrival or Through Flight Entry
1. If the controller responds to a radio call with, "[aircra...
2. If workload or traffic conditions prevent immediate
1. "[Aircraft callsign] remain outside the Class Delta
2. "Aircraft calling Manassas tower standby."
24 hours a day, the operating hours of the tower will be
4. Departures from:
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5. Aircraft Speed. Unless otherwise authorized or required b...
c. Class D airspace areas are depicted on Sectional
d. Surface arerrival extensions:
1. Class D surface arerrival extensions for
2. Surface arerrival extensions are effective
e. Separation for VFR Aircraft. No separation
3-2-6. Class E Airspace
a. Definition. Class E airspace is controlled
b. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment
1. Pilot Certification. No specific certification required.
2. Equipment. No specific equipment
3. Arrival or Through Flight Entry Requirements. No specific...
c. Charts. Class E airspace below 14,500 feet
d. Vertical limits. Except where designated at a
1. The airspace extending upward from 14,500
2. The airspace above FL 600 is Class E
e. Functions of Class E Airspace. Class E
1. Surface area designated for an airport
2. Extension to a surface area. Class E
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3. Airspace used for transition. Class E
4. En Route Domestic Areas. There are
5. Federal Airways and Low-Altitude RNAV
6. Offshore Airspace Areas. There are
12 miles from the coast of the U.S. in those areas
f. Separation for VFR Aircraft. No separation
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3-3-1. General
3-3-3. IFR Requirements
3-3-2. VFR Requirements
a. Title 14 CFR specifies the pilot and aircraft
b. IFR Altitudes.
0 to 179
180 to 359
18,000 feet MSL, fly:
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3-4-1. General
a. Special use airspace (SUA) consists of that
b. Prohibited and restricted areas are regulatory
c. Warning areas, MOAs, alert areas, CFAs, and
d. Special use airspace descriptions (except CFAs)
e. Permanent SUA (except CFAs) is charted on
3-4-2. Prohibited Areas
3-4-3. Restricted Areas
a. Restricted areas contain airspace identified by
14 CFR Part 73.
b. ATC facilities apply the following procedures
1. If the restricted area is not active and has been
2. If the restricted area is active and has not been
c. Permanent restricted areas are charted on
3-4-4. Warning Areas
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3-4-5. Military Operations Areas
a. MOAs consist of airspace of defined vertical
b. Examples of activities conducted in MOAs
250 knots below 10,000 feet MSL within active
c. Pilots operating under VFR should exercise
3-4-7. Controlled Firing Areas
3-4-8. National Security Areas
d. Permanent MOAs are charted on Sectional
3-4-9. Obtaining Special Use Airspace
3-4-6. Alert Areas
a. Pilots can request the status of SUA by
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b. Special Use Airspace Information Service
c. Special use airspace scheduling data for
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3-5-1. Airport Advisory/Information
a. There are two advisory type services available
b. It is not mandatory that pilots participate in the
1. Local Airport Advisory (LAA) service is
2. Remote Airport Information Service (RAIS)
3-5-2. Military Training Routes
a. National security depends largely on the
b. The MTR program is a joint venture by the FAA
c. Generally, MTRs are established below
10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of
250 knots. However, route segments may be defined
1. IFR Military Training Routes-(IR).
2. VFR Military Training Routes-(VR).
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5 miles or more; and flights must not be conducted
d. Military training routes will be identified and
1. Route identification.
e.g., IR1206, VR1207.
2. Route charting.
e. The FLIP contains charts and narrative
8000 Jefferson Davis Highway
f. Nonparticipating aircraft are not prohibited
3-5-3. Temporary Flight Restrictions
a. General. This paragraph describes the types of
91.141 and 91.143 when conducting flight in an area
b. The purpose for establishing a temporary
1. Protect persons and property in the air or on
2. Provide a safe environment for the operation
3. Prevent an unsafe congestion of sightseeing
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4. Protect declared national disasters for
5. Protect the President, Vice President, or other
6. Provide a safe environment for space agency
c. Except for hijacking situations, when the
d. The FAA accepts recommendations for the
e. The type of restrictions issued will be kept to a
f. The amount of airspace needed to protect
g. The FSS nearest the incident site is normally the
h. ATC may authorize operations in a temporary
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i. To preclude misunderstanding, the implementing NOTAM will...
1. 14 CFR Section 91.137(a)(1):
5,000 feet MSL within a 2-nautical-mile radius of Laser
2. 14 CFR Section 91.137(a)(2):
14 CFR Section 91.137(a)(2) temporary flight restrictions
3,500 feet MSL to provide a safe environment for fire
3. 14 CFR Section 91.137(a)(3):
4. 14 CFR Section 91.138:
5. 14 CFR Section 91.141:
6. 14 CFR Section 91.143:
813-545-1645 (122.2) is the FAA coordination facility and
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3-5-4. Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations
a. Procedures relating to parachute jump areas are
b. Pilots of aircraft engaged in parachute jump
c. Parachute operations in the vicinity of an airport
3-5-5. Published VFR Routes
i.e., "VFR Flyway" "VFR Corridor" and "Class B
a. VFR Flyways.
1. VFR Flyways and their associated Flyway
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FIG 3-5-1
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2. VFR Flyways are depicted on the reverse side
FIG 3-5-1.) Eventually all TACs will include a VFR
3. It is very important to remember that these
b. VFR Corridors.
1. The design of a few of the first Class B
2. These corridors are, in effect, a "hole"
FIG 3-5-2
3. Because of the heavy traffic volume and the
c. Class B Airspace VFR Transition Routes.
1. To accommodate VFR traffic through certain
2. These routes, as depicted in FIG 3-5-3, are
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FIG 3-5-3
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3-5-6. Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA)
a. Background. TRSAs were originally established as part of ...
14 CFR Part 93, Special Air Traffic Rules
c. Participation. Each person operating an
d. Charts. SFRAs are depicted on VFR sectional,
FIG 3-5-4.)
FIG 3-5-4
b. TRSAs. The primary airport(s) within the
c. Participation. Pilots operating under VFR are
d. Charts. TRSAs are depicted on VFR sectional
3-5-7. Special Air Traffic Rules (SATR) and
a. Background. The Code of Federal Regulations
b. SFRAs. Airspace of defined dimensions, above
e. Additional information and resources regarding
3-5-8. Weather Reconnaissance Area
a. General. Hurricane Hunters from the United
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b. WRAs. Airspace with defined dimensions and
c. A published WRA NOTAM describes the
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4-1-1. Air Route Traffic Control Centers
b. Where the public access telephone is recorded,
4-1-2. Control Towers
4-1-3. Flight Service Stations
4-1-4. Recording and Monitoring
a. Calls to air traffic control (ATC) facilities
4-1-5. Communications Release of IFR
4-1-6. Pilot Visits to Air Traffic Facilities
4-1-7. Operation Rain Check
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4-1-8. Approach Control Service for VFR
a. Numerous approach control facilities have
b. Such information will be furnished upon initial
c. Where available, use of this procedure will not
d. Compliance with this procedure is not
2. An airport may have a full or part-time tower
3. Many airports are now providing completely
b. Communicating on a Common Frequency
a. Airport Operations Without Operating
1. The key to communicating at an airport
1. There is no substitute for alertness while in
4-1-9. Traffic Advisory Practices at
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1. UNICOM (No Tower or
122.975; or 123.0). If unable to
10 miles out.
2. No Tower, FSS, or
10 miles out.
3. No Tower in operation,
10 miles out.
4. FSS Closed (No Tower)
10 miles out.
5. Tower or FSS not in
10 miles out.
6. Designated CTAF Area
2. CTAF (Alaska Only). In Alaska, a CTAF
3. The CTAF frequency for a particular airport
c. Recommended Traffic Advisory Practices
1. Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and
10 miles from the airport unless the CFRs or local
2. Pilots of aircraft conducting other than
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3. In Alaska, pilots of aircraft conducting other
d. Airport Advisory/Information Services
1. There are two advisory type services
2. In communicating with a CTAF FSS, check
3. Airport advisory service includes wind
e. Information Provided by Aeronautical
1. UNICOM is a nongovernment air/ground
2. On pilot request, UNICOM stations may
f. Unavailability of Information from FSS or
g. Self-Announce Position and/or Intentions
1. General. Self-announce is a procedure
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2. If an airport has a tower and it is temporarily
3. Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM
122.9 for self-announce procedures. Such airports
4. Practice Approaches. Pilots conducting
5. Departing aircraft should always be alert for
6. Recommended self-announce phraseologies:
h. UNICOM Communications Procedures
1. In communicating with a UNICOM station,
2. Recommended UNICOM phraseologies:
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4-1-10. IFR Approaches/Ground Vehicle
a. IFR Approaches. When operating in accordance with an IFR ...
b. Ground Vehicle Operation. Airport ground
c. Radio Control of Airport Lighting Systems.
4-1-11. Designated UNICOM/MULTICOM
a. The following listing depicts UNICOM and
1. In some areas of the country, frequency interference
2. Wind direction and runway information may not be
b. The following listing depicts other frequency
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b. ATIS information includes:
1. Airport/facility name
2. Phonetic letter code
3. Time of the latest weather sequence (UTC)
4. Weather information consisting of:
4-1-12. Use of UNICOM for ATC Purposes
a. Revision to proposed departure time.
b. Takeoff, arrival, or flight plan cancellation
c. ATC clearance, provided arrangements are
4-1-13. Automatic Terminal Information
a. ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded
5. Instrument approach and runway in use.
c. Pilots should listen to ATIS broadcasts
d. Pilots should notify controllers on initial
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e. When a pilot acknowledges receipt of the ATIS
5000 and 5," or the existing weather may be broadcast.
f. Controllers will issue pertinent information to
g. To serve frequency limited aircraft, FSSs are
h. While it is a good operating practice for pilots
2. Use of AFIS is not mandatory, but pilots who
3. When a pilot acknowledges receipt of the
5,000 feet or above and visibility of 5 miles or more. A
b. Pilots should listen to Alaska FSSs AFIS
4-1-14. Automatic Flight Information
a. AFIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded
c. Pilots should notify controllers on initial
1. The AFIS broadcast will automate the
d. While it is a good operating practice for pilots
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4-1-15. Radar Traffic Information Service
a. Purpose of the Service
1. The issuance of traffic information as
2. Pilots are reminded that the surveillance radar
b. Provisions of the Service
1. Many factors, such as limitations of the radar,
2. When receiving VFR radar advisory service,
c. Issuance of Traffic Information. Traffic
1. Radar identified
12 hour clock, or
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FIG 4-1-1
2. Not radar identified
d. The examples depicted in the following figures
2 o"clock. Traffic information issued to aircraft "B" would
FIG 4-1-2
3 o"clock. Traffic information issued to aircraft "D" would
4-1-16. Safety Alert
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a. Terrain or Obstruction Alert
1. Controllers will immediately issue an alert to
2. Most En Route and Terminal radar facilities
3. Terminal AN/TPX-42A (number beacon
4. Due to the lack of terrain and obstacle
b. Aircraft Conflict Alert.
1. Controllers will immediately issue an alert to
4-1-17. Radar Assistance to VFR Aircraft
a. Radar equipped FAA ATC facilities provide
b. Pilots should clearly understand that authorization to pr...
c. In many cases, controllers will be unable to
d. Radar navigation assistance (vectors) may be
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1. The controller suggests the vector and the
2. A special program has been established and
3. In the controller"s judgment the vector is
e. Radar navigation assistance (vectors) and other
4-1-18. Terminal Radar Services for VFR
a. Basic Radar Service:
1. In addition to the use of radar for the control
2. Vectoring service may be provided when
3. Pilots of arriving aircraft should contact
4. Approach control will issue wind and
5. Sequencing for VFR aircraft is available at
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b. TRSA Service (Radar Sequencing and
1. This service has been implemented at certain
2. If any aircraft does not want the service, the
3. TRSAs are depicted on sectional aeronautical
4. While operating within a TRSA, pilots are
5. Visual separation is used when prevailing
6. VFR aircraft will be separated from VFR/IFR
7. Participating pilots operating VFR in a
14 CFR Section 91.159. When the altitude assignment is no lo...
14 CFR Section 91.159 as soon as practicable.
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8. Within the TRSA, traffic information on
9. Departing aircraft should inform ATC of their
10. ATC will normally advise participating
c. Class C Service. This service provides, in
d. Class B Service. This service provides, in
f. ATC services for VFR aircraft participating in
4-1-19. Tower En Route Control (TEC)
a. TEC is an ATC program to provide a service to
10,000 feet. The program is entirely within the
b. Pilots requesting TEC are subject to the same
c. There are no unique requirements upon pilots to
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d. All approach controls in the system may not
10,000 feet. IFR flight may be planned to any
4-1-20. Transponder Operation
a. General
1. Pilots should be aware that proper application
2. Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System
3. Transponder and ADS-B operations on the
4. Transponder and ADS-B Operations in
5. A pilot on an IFR flight who elects to cancel
6. If entering a U.S. OFFSHORE AIRSPACE
7. It should be noted by all users of ATC
b. Transponder Code Designation
1. For ATC to utilize one or a combination of the
4096 discrete codes FOUR DIGIT CODE DESIGNATION will be used...
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c. Automatic Altitude Reporting (Mode C)
1. Some transponders are equipped with a
2. Adjust transponder to reply on the Mode A/3
3. Pilots of aircraft with operating Mode C
d. Transponder IDENT Feature
1. The transponder must be operated only as
e. Code Changes
1. When making routine code changes, pilots
7600 or 7700 thereby causing momentary false
2. Under no circumstances should a pilot of a
3. Military pilots operating VFR or IFR within
f. Mode C Transponder Requirements
1. Specific details concerning requirements to
14 CFR Section 99.12.
2. In general, the CFRs require aircraft to be
48 contiguous states or the District of Columbia,
10,000 feet MSL, whichever is lower);
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3. 14 CFR Section 99.13 requires all aircraft
4. Pilots must ensure that their aircraft transponder is ope...
5. In-flight requests for "immediate" deviation
g. Transponder Operation Under Visual Flight
1. Unless otherwise instructed by an ATC
1. Aircraft not in contact with an ATC facility may squawk
1255 in lieu of 1200 while en route to, from, or within the
2. VFR aircraft which fly authorized SAR missions for the
1200 while en route to, from, or within the designated
3. Gliders not in contact with an ATC facility should
2. Adjust transponder to reply on Mode C, with
h. Radar Beacon Phraseology
1. SQUAWK (number). Operate radar beacon
2. IDENT. Engage the "IDENT" feature (military I/P) of the t...
3. SQUAWK (number) and IDENT. Operate
4. SQUAWK STANDBY. Switch transponder
6. SQUAWK ALTITUDE. Activate Mode C
8. STOP SQUAWK (mode in use). Switch off
9. STOP SQUAWK. Switch off transponder.
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11. SQUAWK VFR. Operate radar beacon
4-1-21. Airport Reservation Operations
a. Slot Controlled Airports.
1. The FAA may adopt rules to require advance
2. The FAA has established an Airport
2. Touch-tone: 1-800-875-9694
3. Trouble number: 540-422-4246.
3. For more detailed information on operations
b. Special Traffic Management Programs
1. Special procedures may be established when
2. There will be two methods available for
1.Touch-tone interface: 1-800-875-9755.
2. Web interface:
3. Trouble number: 540-422-4246.
c. Users may contact the ARO at (540) 422-4246
d. Making Reservations.
1. Internet Users. Detailed information and
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2. Telephone users. When using the telephone
i.e., 01, 02, 03, 04, .. If you wish to enter a letter, firs...
3. For additional helpful key entries, see
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4-1-22. Requests for Waivers and
a. Requests for a Certificate of Waiver or
b. The grant of a Certificate of Waiver or
c. A waiver may be canceled at any time by the
4-1-23. Weather System Processor
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4-2-1. General
a. Radio communications are a critical link in the
b. The single, most important thought in pilotcontroller com...
c. All pilots will find the Pilot/Controller Glossary
4-2-2. Radio Technique
a. Listen before you transmit. Many times you can
b. Think before keying your transmitter. Know
c. The microphone should be very close to your
d. When you release the button, wait a few
e. Be alert to the sounds or the lack of sounds in
f. Be sure that you are within the performance
4-2-3. Contact Procedures
a. Initial Contact.
1. The terms initial contact or initial callup
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1. "New York Radio, Mooney Three One One Echo."
2. "Columbia Ground, Cessna Three One Six Zero
3. "Miami Center, Baron Five Six Three Hotel, request
2. Many FSSs are equipped with Remote
3. If radio reception is reasonably assured,
b. Initial Contact When Your Transmitting and
1. If you are attempting to establish contact with
2. If the chart indicates FSS frequencies above
3. When unable to establish contact and you
c. Subsequent Contacts and Responses to
d. Acknowledgement of Frequency Changes.
1. When advised by ATC to change frequencies,
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2. At times, a controller/specialist may be
123.4." This phrase should alert the pilot that the
e. Compliance with Frequency Changes.
4-2-4. Aircraft Call Signs
a. Precautions in the Use of Call Signs.
1. Improper use of call signs can result in pilots
2. Pilots, therefore, must be certain that aircraft
3. Civil aircraft pilots should state the aircraft
1. Bonanza Six Five Five Golf.
2. Breezy Six One Three Romeo Experimental (omit
4. Air Taxi or other commercial operators not
5. Air carriers and commuter air carriers having
1. United Twenty-Five Heavy.
2. Midwest Commuter Seven Eleven.
6. Military aircraft use a variety of systems
31792; Pat 157; Air Evac 17652; Navy Golf Alfa
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b. Air Ambulance Flights.
1. Civilian air ambulance flights responding to
2. Similar provisions have been made for the use
3. Air carrier and air taxi flights responding to
c. Student Pilots Radio Identification.
1. The FAA desires to help student pilots in
2. This special identification will alert FAA
4-2-5. Description of Interchange or
a. Controllers issue traffic information based on
b. Pilots flying an "interchange" or "leased"
4-2-6. Ground Station Call Signs
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4-2-7. Phonetic Alphabet
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4-2-8. Figures
a. Figures indicating hundreds and thousands in
1. 500 five hundred
2. 4,500 four thousand five hundred
b. Numbers above 9,900 must be spoken by
1. 190 Flight Level One Niner Zero
2. 275 Flight Level Two Seven Five
4-2-10. Directions
1. (Magnetic course) 005 zero zero five
2. (True course) 050 zero five zero true
1. 10,000 . one zero thousand
3. (Magnetic bearing) 360 . three six zero
2. 13,500 . one three thousand five hundred
4. (Magnetic heading) 100 . heading one zero
c. Transmit airway or jet route numbers as follows.
1. V12 . Victor Twelve
2. J533 . J Five Thirty-Three
d. All other numbers must be transmitted by
10 . one zero
e. When a radio frequency contains a decimal
122.1 . one two two point one
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b. To convert from Standard Time to Coordinated
c. A reference may be made to local daylight or
0000 . zero zero zero zero
0920 . zero niner two zero
d. Time may be stated in minutes only
e. Current time in use at a station is stated in the
8 seconds or more are stated as the succeeding quarter
0929:05 time, zero niner two niner
0929:10 time, zero niner two niner and
4-2-13. Communications with Tower when
a. Arriving Aircraft.
1. Receiver inoperative.
2. Transmitter inoperative. Remain outside
3. Transmitter and receiver inoperative.
b. Departing Aircraft. If you experience radio
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14 CFR Section 91.125 and 14 CFR Section 91.129.
4-2-14. Communications for VFR Flights
a. FSSs and Supplemental Weather Service
b. Certain VOR voice channels are being utilized
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4-3-1. General
FIG 4-3-1
4-3-2. Airports with an Operating Control
a. When operating at an airport where traffic
15 miles from the airport. Unless there is a good
b. When necessary, the tower controller will issue
c. The following terminology for the various
FIG 4-3-1):
1. Upwind leg. A flight path parallel to the
2. Crosswind leg. A flight path at right angles
3. Downwind leg. A flight path parallel to the
4. Base leg. A flight path at right angles to the
5. Final approach. A flight path in the
6. Departure. The flight path which begins
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300 feet of the traffic pattern altitude.
d. Many towers are equipped with a tower radar
1. To determine an aircraft"s exact location.
2. To provide radar traffic advisories. Radar
3. To provide a direction or suggested
4. To provide information and instructions to
e. A few of the radar equipped towers are
4-3-3. Traffic Patterns
a. It is recommended that aircraft enter the airport
FIG 4-3-3):
1. Propeller-driven aircraft enter the traffic
2. Large and turbine-powered aircraft enter the
3. Helicopters operating in the traffic pattern
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b. A pilot may vary the size of the traffic pattern
c. Unless otherwise indicated, all turns in the
d. On Sectional, Aeronautical, and VFR Terminal
1. Pilots are encouraged to use the standard traffic
2. RP* indicates special conditions exist and refers pilots
3. Right traffic patterns are not shown at airports with
e. Wind conditions affect all airplanes in varying
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FIG 4-3-2
1. Enter pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the
2. Maintain pattern altitude until abeam approach end of
3. Complete turn to final at least 1/4 mile from the runway.
4. Continue straight ahead until beyond departure end of
5. If remaining in the traffic pattern, commence turn to
6. If departing the traffic pattern, continue straight out, ...
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FIG 4-3-3
1. Enter pattern in level flight, abeam the midpoint of the
6. If departing the traffic pattern, continue straight out, ...
2. Maintain pattern altitude until abeam approach end of
3. Complete turn to final at least 1/4 mile from the runway.
4. Continue straight ahead until beyond departure end of
5. If remaining in the traffic pattern, commence turn to
7. Do not overshoot final or continue on a track which will
8. Do not continue on a track which will penetrate the
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FIG 4-3-4
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4-3-4. Visual Indicators at Airports
a. At those airports without an operating control
b. The segmented circle system consists of the
1. The segmented circle. Located in a position
2. The wind direction indicator. A wind cone,
3. The landing direction indicator. A tetrahedron is install...
4. Landing strip indicators. Installed in pairs
5. Traffic pattern indicators. Arranged in
c. Preparatory to landing at an airport without a
d. When two or more aircraft are approaching an
4-3-5. Unexpected Maneuvers in the
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4-3-6. Use of Runways/Declared Distances
a. Runways are identified by numbers which
18 or 19. Wind direction issued by the tower is also
b. Airport proprietors are responsible for taking
1. At airports where no runway use program is
2. At airports where a runway use program is
c. Declared Distances.
1. Declared distances for a runway represent
2. All 14 CFR Part 139 airports report declared
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FIG 4-3-6). When considering the amount of
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1. The declared LDA for runway 9 must be used when
2. The declared ASDA for runway 9 must be used when
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FIG 4-3-5
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FIG 4-3-6
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4-3-7. Low Level Wind Shear/Microburst
a. LLWAS provides wind shear alert and gust front
b. LLWAS "network expansion," (LLWAS NE)
c. More advanced systems are in the field or being
d. The WSP provides weather processor enhancements to select...
6 level weather, storm cell locations and movement,
3 mile final to the runway to a 2 mile departure.
e. An airport equipped with the LLWAS, ITWS, or
4-3-8. Braking Action Reports and
a. When available, ATC furnishes pilots the
b. FICON NOTAMs will provide contaminant
1. FICON NOTAM reporting of a braking
2. A "NIL" braking condition at these airports
c. When tower controllers receive runway braking
d. During the time that braking action advisories
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4-3-9. Runway Condition Reports
a. Aircraft braking coefficient is dependent upon
b. Runway condition code (RwyCC) values range
4 indicates the level when braking deceleration or
c. Airport management should conduct runway
1. Numerical readings may be obtained by using
2. Assessments for each zone (see 4-3-9c1(c))
3. When any 1 or more runway condition codes
4. Controllers will not issue runway condition
d. When runway condition code reports are
e. Pilots should use runway condition code
f. The Runway Condition Assessment Matrix
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FIG 4-3-7
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4-3-10. Intersection Takeoffs
a. In order to enhance airport capacities, reduce
b. Pilots are expected to assess the suitability of an
c. Controllers will issue the measured distance
d. An aircraft is expected to taxi to (but not onto)
e. Pilots should state their position on the airport
f. Controllers are required to separate small
3-minute separation requirement will also be applied
3-minute interval" or a similar statement. Controllers
g. The 3-minute interval is not required when the
h. A 4-minute interval is mandatory for small,
3-minute interval is mandatory behind a heavy
4-3-11. Pilot Responsibilities When
a. LAHSO is an acronym for "Land and Hold
b. Pilot Responsibilities and Basic Procedures.
1. LAHSO is an air traffic control procedure that
2. At controlled airports, air traffic may clear a
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FIG 4-3-8
3. The pilot-in-command has the final authority to accept or...
4. To conduct LAHSO, pilots should become
FIG 4-3-10 - holding short at a designated point may be
FIG 4-3-9
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FIG 4-3-10
c. LAHSO Situational Awareness
1. Situational awareness is vital to the success of
2. Situational awareness includes effective
5. If, for any reason, such as difficulty in
6. A pilot who accepts a LAHSO clearance
7. Controllers need a full read back of all
3. For those airplanes flown with two crewmembers, effective...
4. Situational awareness also includes a thorough understand...
FIG 4-3-8, FIG 4-3-9, FIG 4-3-10 depict how
5. Pilots should only receive a LAHSO
1,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility. The intent of
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4-3-12. Low Approach
a. A low approach (sometimes referred to as a low
b. When operating within a Class B, Class C, and
c. When operating to an airport, not within a
4-3-13. Traffic Control Light Signals
a. The following procedures are used by ATCTs in
b. Although the traffic signal light offers the
1. Pilots may not be looking at the control tower
2. The directions transmitted by a light signal
c. Between sunset and sunrise, a pilot wishing to
d. Airport Traffic Control Tower Light Gun
e. During daylight hours, acknowledge tower
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4-3-14. Communications
a. Pilots of departing aircraft should communicate
b. The tower controller will consider that pilots of
c. The majority of ground control frequencies are
d. A controller may omit the ground or local
e. Controllers will normally avoid issuing a radio
e.g., on a taxiway or in a helicopter operating area.
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4-3-15. Gate Holding Due to Departure
a. Pilots should contact ground control or
15 minutes. The sequence for departure will be
b. The tower controller will consider that pilots of
4-3-16. VFR Flights in Terminal Areas
a. Approach Area. Conducting a VFR operation
b. Reduced Visibility. It has always been recognized that pr...
c. Simulated Instrument Flights. In conducting
4-3-17. VFR Helicopter Operations at
a. General.
1. The following ATC procedures and phraseologies recognize ...
2. Insofar as possible, helicopter operations will
3. Because helicopter pilots are intimately
b. Controllers normally limit ATC ground service
1. The phraseology taxi is used when it is
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2. Pilots may request a hover taxi when slow
3. Air taxi is the preferred method for helicopter
c. Takeoff and Landing Procedures.
1. Helicopter operations may be conducted
2. Pilots should be alert to wind information as
3. If takeoff is requested from nonmovement
4. Similar phraseology is used for helicopter
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4-3-18. Taxiing
a. General. Approval must be obtained prior to
1. Always state your position on the airport
2. The movement area is normally described in
3. The control tower also issues bulletins
4. A clearance must be obtained prior to taxiing
5. A clearance must be obtained prior to
6. When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will
7. When issuing taxi instructions to any point
8. If a pilot is expected to hold short of a
9. When taxi instructions are received from the
b. ATC clearances or instructions pertaining to
1. Good operating practice dictates that pilots
2. Pilots operating a single pilot aircraft should
3. If the pilot is unfamiliar with the airport or for
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c. At those airports where the U.S. Government
d. The following phraseologies and procedures
1. Request for taxi instructions prior to
2. Receipt of ATC clearance. ARTCC clearances are relayed to...
3. Request for taxi instructions after landing.
4-3-19. Taxi During Low Visibility
a. Pilots and aircraft operators should be constantly aware ...
b. Of vital importance is the need for pilots to
c. Advisory Circular 120-57, Low Visibility
1,200 feet runway visual range (RVR) visibility
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d. When low visibility conditions exist, pilots
4-3-20. Exiting the Runway After Landing
a. Exit the runway without delay at the first
b. Taxi clear of the runway unless otherwise
1. The tower will issue the pilot instructions which will
2. Guidance contained in subparagraphs nd b above is
c. Immediately change to ground control frequency when advis...
1. The tower will issue instructions required to resolve any
2. Ground control will issue taxi clearance to parking.
4-3-21. Practice Instrument Approaches
a. Various air traffic incidents have indicated the
b. Before practicing an instrument approach,
i.e., full-stop landing, touch-and-go, or missed or
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c. At airports without a tower, pilots wishing to
d. The controller will provide approved separation
e. VFR aircraft practicing instrument approaches
f. Except in an emergency, aircraft cleared to
g. At radar approach control locations when a full
h. When granting approval for a practice
i. When authorization is granted to conduct
j. When an aircraft notifies a FSS providing Local
k. Pilots conducting practice instrument approaches should b...
4-3-22. Option Approach
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4-3-23. Use of Aircraft Lights
a. Aircraft position lights are required to be lighted
b. An aircraft anti-collision light system can use
c. The FAA has a voluntary pilot safety program,
10,000 feet, day or night, especially when operating
d. Prop and jet blast forces generated by large
e. Prior to commencing taxi, it is recommended to
f. At the discretion of the pilot-in-command, all
g. When entering the departure runway for takeoff
4-3-24. Flight Inspection/"Flight Check"
a. Flight check is a call sign used to alert pilots and
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FIG 4-3-12
b. Pilots should be especially watchful and avoid
4-3-25. Hand Signals
FIG 4-3-11
FIG 4-3-13
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FIG 4-3-14
FIG 4-3-16
FIG 4-3-15
FIG 4-3-17
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FIG 4-3-18
FIG 4-3-20
FIG 4-3-19
FIG 4-3-21
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FIG 4-3-22
FIG 4-3-24
FIG 4-3-23
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4-3-26. Operations at Uncontrolled
a. Many airports throughout the National
b. At uncontrolled airports that are equipped with
c. Controllers issue SVFR or IFR clearances
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4-4-1. Clearance
a. A clearance issued by ATC is predicated on
b. 14 CFR Section 91.3(a) states: "The pilot-in-
c. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance
d. When weather conditions permit, during the
4-4-2. Clearance Prefix
4-4-3. Clearance Items
a. Clearance Limit. The traffic clearance issued
b. Departure Procedure. Headings to fly and
c. Route of Flight.
1. Clearances are normally issued for the
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2. When required, air traffic clearances include
d. Altitude Data.
1. The altitude or flight level instructions in an
2. When possible, if the altitude assigned is
3. The term "cruise" may be used instead of
e. Holding Instructions.
1. Whenever an aircraft has been cleared to a fix
2. If the holding pattern is charted and the
3. If no holding pattern is charted and holding
4. When an aircraft is 3 minutes or less from a
5. When no delay is expected, the controller
6. Pilots should report to ATC the time and
4-4-4. Amended Clearances
a. Amendments to the initial clearance will be
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b. A pilot may wish an explanation of the handling
c. Pilots have the privilege of requesting a
4-4-5. Coded Departure Route (CDR)
a. CDRs provide air traffic control a rapid means
b. CDRs consist of an eight-character designator
c. CDRs are updated on the 56 day charting cycle.
d. Traditionally, CDRs have been used by air
e. When "CDR Capable" is entered into the
4-4-6. Special VFR Clearances
a. An ATC clearance must be obtained prior to
1. At least 1 statute mile flight visibility for
2. At least 1 statute mile ground visibility if
3. The restrictions in subparagraphs 1 and 2 do
1 statute mile visibility.
b. When a control tower is located within the
c. It is not necessary to file a complete flight plan
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14 CFR Section 91.119, Minimum safe altitudes: General.
d. Special VFR clearances are effective within
e. Special VFR operations by fixed-wing aircraft
14 CFR Part 91, Appendix D, Section 3. They are
f. ATC provides separation between Special VFR
g. Special VFR operations by fixed-wing aircraft
h. Pilots arriving or departing an uncontrolled
4-4-7. Pilot Responsibility upon Clearance
a. Record ATC clearance. When conducting an
b. ATC Clearance/Instruction Readback.
1. Include the aircraft identification in all
2. Read back altitudes, altitude restrictions, and
3. Altitudes contained in charted procedures,
4. Initial read back of a taxi, departure or landing
c. It is the responsibility of the pilot to accept or
4-4-8. IFR Clearance VFR-on-top
a. A pilot on an IFR flight plan operating in VFR
b. Pilots desiring to climb through a cloud, haze,
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h. ATC will not authorize VFR or VFR-on-top
c. A pilot on an IFR flight plan, operating in VFR
d. ATC may not authorize VFR-on-top/VFR
e. When operating in VFR conditions with an ATC
1. Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude as
2. Comply with the VFR visibility and distance
3. Comply with instrument flight rules that are
f. ATC authorization to "maintain VFR-on-top"
g. Pilots operating VFR-on-top/VFR conditions
4-4-9. VFR/IFR Flights
4-4-10. Adherence to Clearance
a. When air traffic clearance has been obtained
b. When a heading is assigned or a turn is
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d. When ATC has not used the term "AT PILOT"S
1,000 feet above or below the assigned altitude, and
500 and 1,500 fpm until the assigned altitude is
2,500 feet above airport elevation (prior to entering a
14 CFR Section 91.117.
e. If the altitude information of an ATC
1. "United Four Seventeen, descend and maintain
1. The pilot is expected to commence descent upon receipt
2. "United Four Seventeen, descend at pilot"s discretion,
2. The pilot is authorized to conduct descent within the
3. "United Four Seventeen, cross Lakeview V-O-R at or
3. The pilot is authorized to conduct descent at pilot"s
4. "United Four Seventeen, cross Lakeview V-O-R at
4. The pilot is authorized to conduct descent at pilot"s
5. "United Four Seventeen, descend now to Flight
5. The pilot is expected to promptly execute and complete
6. "United Three Ten, descend now and maintain Flight
6. The pilot is expected to commence descent upon receipt
f. In case emergency authority is used to deviate
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g. The guiding principle is that the last ATC
1. A departure flight receives a clearance to destination
2. A departing aircraft is cleared to cross Fluky
3. An arriving aircraft is cleared to the destination airpor...
10,000 feet" was omitted from the amended clearance, it is
h. Pilots of turbojet aircraft equipped with
i. If an "expedite" climb or descent clearance is
4-4-11. IFR Separation Standards
a. ATC effects separation of aircraft vertically by
b. Separation will be provided between all aircraft
c. When radar is employed in the separation of
4-4-12. Speed Adjustments
a. ATC will issue speed adjustments to pilots of
b. ATC will express all speed adjustments in
5 or 10 knot increments except that at or above FL
240 speeds may be expressed in terms of Mach
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c. Pilots complying with speed adjustments are
10 knots or 0.02 Mach number of the specified speed.
d. When ATC assigns speed adjustments, it will
1. To aircraft operating between FL 280 and
10,000 feet, a speed not less than 250 knots or the
1. On a standard day the Mach numbers equivalent to
250 knots CAS (subject to minor variations) are:
2. When an operational advantage will be realized, speeds
2. To arriving turbojet aircraft operating below
10,000 feet:
3. To arriving reciprocating engine or turboprop
4. To departing aircraft:
230 knots.
14 CFR Section 91.117 still apply. If there is any doubt
f. If ATC determines (before an approach
1. Advise the pilot to "resume normal speed."
2. Instruct pilots to "comply with speed
e. When ATC combines a speed adjustment with
3. Instruct the pilot to "resume published
1. Descend and maintain (altitude); then, reduce speed to
2. Reduce speed to (speed); then, descend and maintain
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4. Advise the pilot to "delete speed restrictions"
14 CFR Section 91.117.
5. Instruct the pilot to "climb via" or "descend
1. (An aircraft is flying a SID with published speed
2. In example 2, when ATC issues a "Descend via <STAR
g. Approach clearances supersede any prior speed
h. The pilots retain the prerogative of rejecting the
2. (An aircraft is established on a STAR. ATC must slow an
i. Pilots are reminded that they are responsible for
1. In example 1, when ATC issues a "Climb via SID"
j. Speed restrictions of 250 knots do not apply to
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10,000 feet MSL. However, in airspace underlying a
200 knot speed limit specified in 14 CFR
k. For operations in a Class C and Class D surface
200 knots when operating beneath Class B airspace or in
l. When in communications with the ARTCC or
4-4-13. Runway Separation
4-4-14. Visual Separation
a. Visual separation is a means employed by ATC
1. The tower controller sees the aircraft
2. A pilot sees the other aircraft involved and
b. A pilot"s acceptance of instructions to follow
c. Scanning the sky for other aircraft is a key factor
d. Since the eye can focus only on a narrow
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4-4-15. Use of Visual Clearing Procedures
a. Before Takeoff. Prior to taxiing onto a runway
b. Climbs and Descents. During climbs and
c. Straight and Level. Sustained periods of
d. Traffic Pattern. Entries into traffic patterns
e. Traffic at VOR Sites. All operators should
f. Training Operations. Operators of pilot training programs...
1. Pilots undergoing flight instruction at all
4. Appropriate clearing procedures should
4-4-16. Traffic Alert and Collision
a. TCAS I provides proximity warning only, to
b. TCAS II provides traffic advisories (TA) and
1. When a TA occurs, attempt to establish visual
2. When an RA occurs, pilots should respond
3. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC
c. Deviations from rules, policies, or clearances
2. High-wing airplane. Momentarily raise the
d. The serving IFR air traffic facility is not
3. Low-wing airplane. Momentarily lower
1. The aircraft has returned to its assigned
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2. Alternate ATC instructions have been issued.
3. A crew member informs ATC that the TCAS
4-4-17. Traffic Information Service (TIS)
a. TIS provides proximity warning only, to assist
b. TIS does not alter or diminish the pilot"s basic
c. At this time, no air traffic service nor handling
d. Presently, no air traffic services or handling is
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4-5-1. Radar
a. Capabilities
1. Radar is a method whereby radio waves are
2. More reliable maintenance and improved
b. Limitations
1. It is very important for the aviation
FIG 4-5-1
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c. FAA radar units operate continuously at the
4-5-2. Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon
a. The ATCRBS, sometimes referred to as
1. Interrogator. Primary radar relies on a
2. Transponder. This airborne radar beacon
3. Radarscope. The radarscope used by the
b. The job of identifying and maintaining
1. Reinforcement of radar targets.
2. Rapid target identification.
3. Unique display of selected codes.
c. A part of the ATCRBS ground equipment is the
FIG 4-5-2 and FIG 4-5-3.)
d. It should be emphasized that aircraft transponders greatl...
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FIG 4-5-2
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5. Radar limit line for control
25. "Low ALT" flashes to indicate when an aircraft"s
6. Obstruction (video map)
7. Primary radar returns of obstacles or terrain (can be
27. Airways
1. Areas of precipitation (can be reduced by CP)
2. Arrival/departure tabular list
3. Trackball (control) position symbol (A)
4. Airway (lines are sometimes deleted in part)
8. Satellite airports
9. Runway centerlines (marks and spaces indicate
10. Primary airport with parallel runways
11. Approach gates
12. Tracked target (primary and beacon target)
13. Control position symbol
14. Untracked target select code (monitored) with
28. Primary target only
29. Nonmonitored. No Mode C (an asterisk would
30. Beacon target only (secondary radar based on
31. Tracked target (primary and beacon target) control
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FIG 4-5-3
140 + 143
70 231
170 143
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1. Uncorrelated primary radar target [] [+]
16. Assigned altitude 7,000, aircraft is descending, last
2. Correlated primary radar target []
17. Transponder code shows in full data block only when
3. Uncorrelated beacon target [ / ]
18. Aircraft is 300" above assigned altitude
4. Correlated beacon target [ \ ]
19. Reported altitude (no Mode C readout) same as
5. Identing beacon target []
6. Free track (no flight plan tracking) []
7. Flat track (flight plan tracking) []
8. Coast (beacon target lost) [#]
9. Present position hold [  ]
20. Transponder set on emergency Code 7700 (EMRG
21. Transponder Code 1200 (VFR) with no Mode C
22. Code 1200 (VFR) with Mode C and last altitude
23. Transponder set on radio failure Code 7600 (RDOF
24. Computer ID #228, CST indicates target is in coast
25. Assigned altitude FL 290, transponder code (these two
10. Aircraft ident
11. Assigned altitude FL 280, Mode C altitude same or
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4-5-3. Surveillance Radar
a. Surveillance radars are divided into two general
1. ASR is designed to provide relatively
2. ARSR is a long-range radar system designed
3. Center Radar Automated Radar Terminal
b. Surveillance radars scan through 360 degrees of
4-5-4. Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
a. PAR is designed for use as a landing aid rather
b. Two antennas are used in the PAR array, one
4-5-5. Airport Surface Detection
a. ASDE-X/ASSC is a multi-sensor surface
1. A Primary Radar System. ASDE-X/
2. Interfaces. ASDE-X/ASSC contains an
3. Automation. A Multi-sensor Data Processor (MSDP) combines...
4. Air Traffic Control Tower Display. A high
b. The combination of data collected from the
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c. The following facilities are operational with
d. The following facilities have been projected to
4-5-6. Traffic Information Service (TIS)
a. Introduction.
8 intruder aircraft within 7 NM horizontally,
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b. Requirements.
1. In order to use TIS, the client and any intruder
FIG 4-5-4
FIG 4-5-5
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FIG 4-5-6
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2. The cockpit equipment functionality required
3. To be visible to the TIS client, the intruder
4. TIS will initially be provided by the terminal
FIG 4-5-5, Terminal Mode S Radar Sites, for site
c. Capabilities.
1. TIS provides ground-based surveillance
2. TIS, through the Mode S ground sensor,
1 NM increments (depending on range).
1,000-3,500 feet) if the intruder aircraft has operating
45-degree increments.
3. When flying from surveillance coverage of
4. There are a variety of status messages that are
0.5 nautical miles laterally.
6 seconds old. This indicates a missing uplink from
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5. Depending on avionics system design, TIS
12 o"clock position at the top. The range rings
6. The inset in the lower right corner of
FIG 4-5-6, Traffic Information Service (TIS),
d. Limitations.
1. TIS is NOT intended to be used as a collision
2. While TIS is a useful aid to visual traffic
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55 NM of the radars depicted in FIG 4-5-5, Terminal
34 degrees: Any aircraft above that angle with
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e. Reports of TIS Malfunctions.
1. Users of TIS can render valuable assistance in
4-5-7. Automatic Dependent
a. Introduction.
1. Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) is a s...
2. In the United States, ADS-B equipped
1090ES. ADS-B equipment operating on 978 MHz
3. ADS B avionics can have the ability to both
2020, all aircraft operating within the airspace
4. In general, operators flying at 18,000 feet and
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FIG 4-5-7
b. ADS-B Certification and Performance
c. ADS-B Capabilities and Procedures.
1. ADS-B enables improved surveillance services, both air-to...
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FIG 4-5-8
FIG 4-5-9
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2. One of the data elements transmitted by
3. Each ADS-B aircraft is assigned a unique
4. ADS-B systems integrated with the
d. ATC Surveillance Services using ADS-B -
1. Preflight:
2. Inflight:
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3. Aircraft with an Inoperative/Malfunctioning
e. ADS-B Limitations.
1. The ADS-B cockpit display of traffic is NOT
2. Use of ADS-B radar services is limited to the
f. Reports of ADS-B Malfunctions.
1. Condition observed.
2. Date and time of observation.
3. Altitude and location of observation.
4. Type and call sign of the aircraft.
5. Type and software version of avionics
4-5-8. Traffic Information Service-
a. Introduction
b. TIS-B Requirements.
1. Aircraft must be equipped with an ADS-B
2. Aircraft must fly within the coverage volume
3. Aircraft must be within the coverage of and
c. TIS-B Capabilities.
1. TIS-B is intended to provide ADS-B
2. Only transponder-equipped targets
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d. TIS-B Limitations.
1. TIS-B is NOT intended to be used as a
2. While TIS-B is a useful aid to visual traffic
3. Pilots and operators are reminded that the
e. Reports of TIS-B Malfunctions.
1. Condition observed.
2. Date and time of observation.
3. Altitude and location of observation.
4. Type and call sign of the aircraft.
5. Type and software version of avionics
4-5-9. Flight Information Service-
a. Introduction.
978 MHz UAT data link. The FAA FIS-B system
FIG 4-5-9.)
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b. Weather Products.
c. Reports of FIS-B Malfunctions.
1. Condition observed.
2. Date and time of observation.
3. Altitude and location of observation.
4. Type and call sign of the aircraft.
5. Type and software version of avionics
5 minutes
5 minutes
5 minutes
5 minutes
15 minutes
5 minutes
2.5 minutes
10 minutes
10 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
8 hours/as available
10 minutes
6 hours
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4-5-10. Automatic Dependent
a. Introduction.
1090 ES). The ADS-B system receives the ADS-B
b. Reports of ADS-R Malfunctions.
1. Condition observed.
2. Date and time of observation.
3. Altitude and location of observation.
4. Type and call sign of the aircraft.
5. Type and software version of avionics
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4-6-1. Applicability and RVSM Mandate
a. Applicability. The policies, guidance and
b. Mandate. At 0901 UTC on January 20, 2005,
c. RVSM Authorization. In accordance with
14 CFR Section 91.180, with only limited exceptions, prior t...
d. Benefits. RVSM enhances ATC flexibility,
4-6-2. Flight Level Orientation Scheme
FIG 4-6-1
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4-6-3. Aircraft and Operator Approval
a. RVSM Authority. 14 CFR Section 91.180
14 CFR Section 91.180 requires that, prior to
b. Sources of Information. Advisory Circular
c. TCAS Equipage. TCAS equipage requirements are contained i...
125.224, 129.18 and 135.189. Part 91 Appendix G
d. Aircraft Monitoring. Operators are required
e. Purpose of RVSM Approvals Databases.
f. Registration of U.S. Operators. When U.S.
4-6-4. Flight Planning into RVSM Airspace
a. Operators that do not file the correct aircraft
b. The operator will annotate the equipment block
c. General Policies for FAA Flight Plan Equipment Suffix. TB...
1. The operator will annotate the equipment
2. Operators can only file one equipment suffix
3. Aircraft with RNAV Capability. For flight in
d. Policy for ICAO Flight Plan Equipment
1. Operators/aircraft that are RVSM-compliant
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2. Operators/aircraft that file ICAO flight plans
e. Importance of Flight Plan Equipment Suffixes.
1. Whether or not the operator and aircraft are
2. The navigation and/or transponder capability
f. Significant ATC uses of the flight plan
1. To issue or deny clearance into RVSM
2. To apply a 2,000 foot vertical separation
3. To determine if the aircraft has "Advanced
g. Improperly changing an aircraft equipment
4-6-5. Pilot RVSM Operating Practices and
a. RVSM Mandate. If either the operator or the
1. The flight is conducted by a non-RVSM
2. The pilot intends to climb to or descend from
3. An emergency situation exists.
b. Basic RVSM Operating Practices and
c. Appendix B contains practices and procedures
d. The following paragraphs either clarify or
4-6-6. Guidance on Severe Turbulence
a. Introduction/Explanation
1. The information and practices in this
2. Severe Turbulence. Severe turbulence
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3. Mountain Wave Activity (MWA)
4. Priority for Controller Application of
7110.65, Air Traffic Control, Paragraph 5-1-8,
5. TCAS Sensitivity. For both MWA and
b. Pre-flight tools. Sources of observed and
c. Pilot Actions When Encountering Weather
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1. Weather Encounters Inducing Altitude
2. Severe Turbulence (including that associated with MWA). W...
10 miles, opposite direction; eastbound MD-80 at
3. MWA. When pilots encounter MWA, they
10 miles, opposite direction; eastbound MD-80 at
4. FL Change or Re-route. To leave airspace
4-6-7. Guidance on Wake Turbulence
a. Pilots should be aware of the potential for wake
b. Prior to DRVSM implementation, the FAA
c. To date, wake turbulence has not been reported
d. Pilot Action to Mitigate Wake Turbulence
1. Pilots should be alert for wake turbulence
1,000 feet below opposite-direction traffic.
1,000 feet below same-direction traffic.
2. Pilots encountering or anticipating wake
1. Offsets of approximately a wing span upwind generally
2. In domestic U.S. airspace, pilots must request clearance
4-6-8. Pilot/Controller Phraseology
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a. On the initial call on any frequency in the RVSM
b. In all requests for flight level changes pertaining to
c. In all read backs to flight level clearances pertaining
d. In read back of flight level clearances involving
e.g., "Certification flight").
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4-6-9. Contingency Actions: Weather
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14 CFR Section 91.215 (ATC transponder and altitude
4-6-10. Procedures for Accommodation of
b. Categories of Non-RVSM Aircraft that may
a. General Policies for Accommodation of
1. The RVSM mandate calls for only RVSM
2. If either the operator or aircraft or both have
14 CFR Section 91.180 and Part 91 Appendix G
3. Non-RVSM aircraft flights will be handled
2,000 feet.
4. Required Pilot Calls. The pilot of non-
1. Department of Defense (DOD) aircraft.
2. Flights conducted for aircraft certification
3. Active air ambulance flights utilizing a
4. Aircraft climbing/descending through
5. Foreign State (government) aircraft.
c. Methods for operators of non-RVSM aircraft to
1. LOA/MOU. Enter into a Letter of Agreement (LOA)/Memorandu...
2. File-and-Fly. File a flight plan to notify the
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4-6-11. Non-RVSM Aircraft Requesting
a. File-and-Fly. Operators of Non-RVSM aircraft climbing to ...
b. Non-RVSM aircraft climbing to and descending from flight ...
c. Non-RVSM aircraft climbing to/descending
1. Aircraft is capable of a continuous climb/descent and doe...
2. Aircraft is capable of climb/descent at the
d. Required Pilot Calls. The pilot of non-RVSM
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4-7-1. Introduction and General Policies
a. Air traffic control (ATC) may apply 50 nautical
1. Houston Oceanic Control Area (CTA)/Flight
2. Gulf of Mexico portion of the Miami Oceanic
3. Monterrey CTA.
4. Merida High CTA within the Mexico
b. Within the Gulf of Mexico airspace described
c. The reduced lateral separation allows more
d. 50 NM lateral separation is not applied on
e. Information useful for flight planning and
f. Pilots should use Strategic Lateral Offset
4-7-2. Accommodating Non-RNP 10
a. Operators not authorized for RNP 10 or RNP 4
b. Operators of aircraft not authorized RNP 10 or
c. Pilots of non-RNP 10 aircraft are to remind
d. Operators will likely benefit from the effort
4-7-3. Obtaining RNP 10 or RNP 4
a. For U.S. operators, AC 90-105, Approval
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b. The operator"s RNP 10 or RNP 4 authorization
4-7-4. Authority for Operations with a
50 NM lateral separation in the Gulf of Mexico CTAs
18, section 4 of FAA Order 8900.1 provides the
4-7-5. Flight Plan Requirements
a. In order for an operator with RNP 10 or RNP 4
7233-4) must be annotated as follows:
1. Item 10a (Equipment) must include the letter
2. Item 18 must include either "PBN/A1" for
b. Indication of RNP 4 authorization implies the
c. Chapter 5, section 1, of this manual includes
4-7-6. Contingency Procedures
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5-1-1. Preflight Preparation
a. Every pilot is urged to receive a preflight
1-800-WX-Brief to obtain preflight weather data
b. The information required by the FAA to process
c. Consult an FSS for preflight weather briefing.
d. FSSs are required to advise of pertinent
e. Pilots are urged to use only the latest issue of
f. When requesting a preflight briefing, identify
1. Type of flight planned; e.g., VFR or IFR.
2. Aircraft"s number or pilot"s name.
3. Aircraft type.
4. Departure Airport.
5. Route of flight.
6. Destination.
7. Flight altitude(s).
8. ETD and ETE.
g. Prior to conducting a briefing, briefers are
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h. FAA by 14 CFR Part 93, Subpart K, has
i. In addition to the filing of a flight plan, if the
3. Use current charts.
4. Use the navigation aids. Practice maintaining
5. Maintain a constant altitude which is
6. Estimate en route position times.
7. Make accurate and frequent position reports
b. Simulated IFR flight is recommended (under
c. When flying VFR at night, in addition to the
5-1-3. Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) System
j. Pilots operating under provisions of 14 CFR
a. Time-critical aeronautical information which
5-1-2. Follow IFR Procedures Even When
a. To maintain IFR proficiency, pilots are urged to
1. NOTAM information is that aeronautical information
1. Obtain a complete preflight and weather
2. NOTAM information is transmitted using standard
2. File a flight plan. This is an excellent low cost
b. NOTAM information is classified into five
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1. NOTAM (D) information is disseminated for
2. FDC NOTAMs. On those occasions when
3. Pointer NOTAMs. NOTAMs issued by a
4. SAA NOTAMs. These NOTAMs are issued
5. Military NOTAMs. NOTAMs pertaining
c. Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP). The
1. Part 1, provided by NFDC, contains Part 95
2. Part 2, International NOTAMs, is divided into
3. Part 3, Graphic Notices, compiled by ATC
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35L/C, 36L/R: DONOT EXCEED 240KT UNTIL KMART 1305011200-1312...
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1. * Unverified Aeronautical Information can be movement are...
2. ** Other Aeronautical Information is that which is receiv...
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5-1-4. Flight Plan - VFR Flights
a. Except for operations in or penetrating an
b. It is strongly recommended that a flight plan
c. To obtain maximum benefits from the flight
d. When a "stopover" flight is anticipated, it is
1 hour duration.
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e. Pilots are encouraged to give their departure
1. The actual departure time is received.
2. A revised proposed departure time is
3. At a time of filing, the FSS is informed that
f. On pilot"s request, at a location having an active
g. Although position reports are not required for
1. Bonanza 314K, over Kingfisher at (time), VFR flight
2. Cherokee 5133J, over Oklahoma City at (time),
h. Pilots not operating on an IFR flight plan and
i. When filing VFR flight plans, indicate aircraft
j. Under some circumstances, ATC computer
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FIG 5-1-1
9. DESTINATION (Name of airport
k. Flight Plan Form - (See FIG 5-1-1).
l. Explanation of VFR Flight Plan Items.
8. Block 8. Define the route of flight by using
1. Block 1. Check the type flight plan. Check
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12. Block 12. Specify the fuel on board in
13. Block 13. Specify an alternate airport if
14. Block 14. Enter your complete name,
15. Block 15. Enter total number of persons on
16. Block 16. Enter the predominant colors.
17. Block 17. Record the FSS name for closing
1. Optional- record a destination telephone number to
2. The information transmitted to the destination FSS will
5-1-5. Operational Information System
a. The FAA"s Air Traffic Control System
b. The website consolidates information from
1. Advisories are normally issued for the
2. This list is not all-inclusive. Any time there
3. Route information is available on the website
4. Route advisories are identified by the word
5. Electronic System Impact Reports are on the
5-1-6. Flight Plan- Defense VFR (DVFR)
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5-1-7. Composite Flight Plan (VFR/IFR
a. Flight plans which specify VFR operation for
b. When a flight plan indicates IFR for the first
7233-4 (International Flight Plan), as described in
a. General
1. Prior to departure from within, or prior to
30 minutes prior to estimated time of departure to
1. There are several methods of obtaining IFR clearances
5-1-8. Flight Plan (FAA Form 7233-1)-
2. When requesting an IFR clearance, it is highly
1. Procedures outlined in this section apply to operators
2. When filing an IFR flight plan, include as a
2. Filers utilizing FAA Form 7233-1 may not be eligible
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3. When filing an IFR flight plan, identify the
1. ATC issues clearances based on filed suffixes. Pilots
2. For procedures requiring GPS, if the navigation system
3. The suffix is not to be added to the aircraft identificat...
4. It is recommended that pilots file the
5. When filing an IFR flight plan via telephone
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b. Airways and Jet Routes Depiction on Flight
1. It is vitally important that the route of flight
2. If flight is to be conducted via designated
2. ALB J37 ENO J14 BHM
3. The route of flight may also be described by
4. When the route of flight is defined by named
5. When filing IFR, it is to the pilot"s advantage
6. ATC may issue a SID or a STAR, as
c. Direct Flights
1. All or any portions of the route which will not
2. The azimuth feature of VOR aids and that
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3. An operational service volume has been
18,000 feet MSL to FL 450 - Use aids not more than
260 NM apart. These aids are depicted on enroute
18,000 feet MSL - Use aids not more than 80 NM
200 NM apart may be used.
4. Increasing use of self-contained airborne
5. At times, ATC will initiate a direct route in a
6. Airway or jet route numbers, appropriate to
7. Pilots are reminded that they are responsible
d. Area Navigation (RNAV)/Global Navigation
1. Except for GNSS-equipped aircraft, random
2. Pilots of aircraft equipped with approved area
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3. Pilots of aircraft equipped with latitude/longitude coord...
1 Departure airport.
2 Departure fix.
3 Intermediate fix (turning
4 Arrival fix.
5 Destination airport.
1 Departure airport.
2 Transition fix (pitch point).
3 Minneapolis ARTCC waypoint.
4 Denver ARTCC Waypoint.
5 Los Angeles ARTCC waypoint (catch
6 Transition fix.
7 Arrival.
8 Destination airport.
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2. Block 2. Enter your complete aircraft
3. Block 3. Enter the designator for the aircraft,
e. Flight Plan Form- See FIG 5-1-2.
f. Explanation of IFR Flight Plan Items.
1. Block 1. Check the type flight plan. Check
FIG 5-1-2
9. DESTINATION (Name of airport
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8. Block 8. Define the route of flight by using
9. Block 9. Enter the destination airport
10. Block 10. Enter your estimated time en
11. Block 11. Enter only those remarks pertinent to ATC or t...
1. The pilot is responsible for knowing when it is
60-day rule or when using FAA special radiotelephony
15. Block 15. Enter the total number of persons
16. Block 16. Enter the predominant colors.
g. The information transmitted to the ARTCC for
5-1-9. International Flight Plan (FAA Form
7233-4)- IFR Flights (For Domestic or
a. General
1. Mandatory for assignment of RNAV SIDs
2. Mandatory for all IFR flights that will depart
3. Recommended for domestic IFR flights.
2. "DVRSN" should be placed in Block 11 only if the
1. An abbreviated description of FAA Form 7233-4
3. Do not assume that remarks will be automatically
2. Filers utilizing FAA Form 7233-1 (Flight Plan) may not
12. Block 12. Specify the fuel on board,
13. Block 13. Specify an alternate airport if
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b. Explanation of Items Filed in FAA Form
1. Item 7. Aircraft Identification. Insert the
2. Item 8. Flight Rules and Type of Flight.
3. Item 9. Number, Type of Aircraft, and
300,000 pounds (136 000 kg), or more;
15,500 pounds (7,000 kg);
15,500 pounds (7,000 kg) or less.
4. Item 10. Equipment
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FIG 5-1-3
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a. Presence of relevant serviceable equipment on board the a...
b. Equipment and capabilities commensurate with flight crew ...
c. Where applicable, authorization from the appropriate auth...
1. If the letter S is used, standard equipment is considered...
2. If the letter G is used, the types of external GNSS augme...
3. See RTCA/EUROCAE Interoperability Requirements Standard F...
4. If the letter R is used, the performance-based navigation...
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5. If the letter Z is used, specify in Item 18 the other equ...
6. Information on navigation capability is provided to ATC f...
7. Guidance on the application of performance-based communic...
1. SDGW/SB1U1 {VOR, ILS, VHF, DME, GNSS, RVSM, Mode S transp...
2. S/C {VOR, ILS, VHF, Mode C transponder}
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5. Item 13. Departure Aerodrome/Time
1. KSMF2215
2. ZZZZ0330
6. Item 15. Cruise Speed, Level and Route
7. Item 16. Destination Aerodrome, Total
1. KOKC0200
2. ZZZZ0330
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1. KDFW0234 KPWA
2. KBOS0304 ZZZZ
8. Item 18. Other Information
1. Operators are warned that the use of indicators not
2. Hyphens "-" or oblique strokes "/" should only be used
3. Avoid use of any other special characters in Field 18
4. An indicator without any associated information will
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1. NAV/RNVD1 or NAV/RNVD1E0A0 (Same meaning)
2. NAV/RNVA1 or NAV/RNVD0E0A1 (Same meaning)
3. NAV/RNVE2 or NAV/RNVD0E2A0 (Same meaning)
4. NAV/RNVD1A1 or NAV/RNVD1E0A1 (Same meaning)
1. Route assignments are predicated on NAV/ data over
2. Aircraft certification requirements for RNAV operations w...
1. SUR/260B
2. SUR/260B 282B
1. SUR/ RSP180
2. SUR/ RSP400
3. SUR/ RSP180 RSP400
2. DEP/T23
4. DEP/4620N07805W
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3. DEST/4620N07805W
1. TYP/Homebuilt
2. TYP/2 P51 B17 B24
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9. Item 19. Supplementary Information
7233-4. This information will be retained by the
5-1-10. IFR Operations to High Altitude
a. Pilots planning IFR flights to airports located in
14 CFR Section 91.167.
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b. The FAA has identified three possible situations
1. An IFR flight to an airport where the
b. Pilots should remember that there is a need to
121.5 MHz when on long over-water flights, except
121.5 MHz is particularly critical when operating in
2. A small number of other airports in
3. An IFR flight to an airport which requires
14 CFR Section 91.167(b). An inflight equipment
5-1-11. Flights Outside U.S. Territorial
a. When conducting flights, particularly extended
c. The filing of a flight plan, always good practice,
d. All pilots should review the foreign airspace
e. Current NOTAMs for foreign locations must
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f. When customs notification to foreign locations
g. Aircraft arriving to locations in U.S. territorial
5-1-12. Change in Flight Plan
a. In addition to altitude or flight level, destination
b. All changes to existing flight plans should be
5-1-13. Change in Proposed Departure
a. To prevent computer saturation in the en route
b. Due to traffic saturation, ATC personnel
5-1-14. Closing VFR/DVFR Flight Plans
14 CFR Section 91.153.
14 CFR Section 91.169.
5-1-15. Canceling IFR Flight Plan
a. 14 CFR Sections 91.153 and 91.169 include the
b. An IFR flight plan may be canceled at any time
c. ATC separation and information services will
d. If a DVFR flight plan requirement exists, the
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e. If operating on an IFR flight plan to an airport
f. If operating on an IFR flight plan to an airport
5-1-16. RNAV and RNP Operations
a. During the pre-flight planning phase the
b. If a pilot determines a specified RNP level
c. The onboard navigation database must be
d. During system initialization, pilots of aircraft
e. Prior to commencing takeoff, the flight crew
f. During the pre-flight planning phase RAIM
1. Operators may monitor the status of each
2. Operators may use the Service Availability
3. Operators may contact a Flight Service
4. Operators may use a third party interface,
5. Operators may use the receiver"s installed
6. Operators not using model-specific software
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5-1-17. Cold Temperature Operations
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5-2-1. Pre-taxi Clearance Procedures
2. Participating pilots call clearance delivery or
3. IFR clearance (or delay information, if
b. Both services are available only to participating
4. When the IFR clearance is received on
c. In all situations, the pilot is encouraged to
a. Certain airports have established pre-taxi
1. Pilot participation is not mandatory.
5. Normally, pilots need not inform ground
6. If a pilot cannot establish contact on clearance
b. Locations where these procedures are in effect
5-2-2. Automated Pre-Departure
a. Many airports in the National Airspace System
1. PDC
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5-2-3. IFR Clearances Off Uncontrolled
a. Pilots departing on an IFR flight plan should
c. If a takeoff clearance is not received within a
b. Air traffic facilities providing clearance delivery servi...
c. Except Alaska, pilots may also contact Flight
5-2-4. Taxi Clearance
5-2-5. Line Up and Wait (LUAW)
a. Line up and wait is an air traffic control (ATC)
b. This ATC instruction is not an authorization to
d. Situational awareness during line up and wait
e. Pilots should be especially vigilant when
f. When two or more runways are active, aircraft
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g. When ATC issues intersection "line up and
1. The aircraft is on the ground or it has departed
2. That a pilot will not accept an abbreviated
3. That it is the responsibility of the company or
h. If landing traffic is a factor during line up and
4. That it is the responsibility of the pilot to
i. Never land on a runway that is occupied by
5-2-6. Abbreviated IFR Departure
a. ATC facilities will issue an abbreviated IFR
b. Controllers will issue a detailed clearance when
c. The clearance as issued will include the
d. ATC procedures now require the controller to
e. STARs, when filed in a flight plan, are
f. "Cleared to (destination) airport as filed" does
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g. In both radar and nonradar environments, the
1. If a DP or DP transition is to be flown, specify
2. When there is no DP or when the pilot cannot
3. If it is necessary to make a minor revision to
3. If the flight plan has been changed, state the
4. Request verification or clarification from
5. When requesting clearance for the IFR
5-2-7. Departure Restrictions, Clearance
a. ATC may assign departure restrictions, clearance void tim...
1. Avoid making changes to a filed flight plan
1. Clearance Void Times. A pilot may receive
2. State the following information in the initial
1. Other IFR traffic for the airport where the clearance is
4. Additionally, in a nonradar environment, the
h. To ensure success of the program, pilots should:
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2. Pilots who depart at or after their clearance void time
14 CFR Section 91.173 which requires that pilots receive
2. Hold for Release. ATC may issue "hold for
3. Release Times. A "release time" is a
5-2-8. Departure Control
a. Departure Control is an approach control
b. Departure Control utilizing radar will normally
1. When a departure is to be vectored
2. At some airports when a departure will fly an
4. Expect Departure Clearance Time
1. The SID transition is not restated as it is contained in ...
2. Aircraft cleared via RNAV SIDs designed to begin with
b. If practical, pilots departing uncontrolled
3. Pilots operating in a radar environment are
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c. Controllers will inform pilots of the departure
5-2-9. Instrument Departure Procedures
a. Instrument departure procedures are preplanned instrument...
b. A Diverse Vector Area (DVA) is an area in
c. Pilots operating under 14 CFR Part 91 are
d. Why are DPs necessary? The primary reason is
1. Establish a steeper than normal climb
2. Establish a steeper than normal climb
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3. Design and publish a specific departure route;
4. A combination or all of the above.
e. What criteria is used to provide obstruction
1. Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle
2. ODPs, SIDs, and DVAs assume normal
3. The 40:1 obstacle identification surface
FIG 5-2-1. (Ref 14 CFR 91.177 for further
4. Obstacles that are located within 1 NM of the
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FIG 5-2-1
5. Climb gradients greater than 200 FPNM are
6000." The pilot climbs at least 200 FPNM to 6000. If 4000
280 FPNM is required to 2500 and is mandatory when the
6. Climb gradients may be specified only to an
7. A Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)
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f. Who is responsible for obstacle clearance? DPs
1. Obstacle clearance responsibility also rests
2. ATC may vector the aircraft beginning with
3. The DVA may be established below the
4. Pilots must preplan to determine if the aircraft
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g. Where are DPs located? DPs and DVAs will be
1. An ODP that has been developed solely for
h. Responsibilities
1. Each pilot, prior to departing an airport on an
2. Pilots should not exceed a published speed
3. After an aircraft is established on a SID and
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4. Aircraft instructed to resume a SID procedure
5. A clearance for a SID which does not contain
6. A clearance for a SID which contains
1. When otherwise cleared along a route or procedure that
2. ATC anticipates pilots will begin adjusting speed the
3. If ATC interrupts lateral/vertical navigation while an
4. ATC will assign an altitude to cross if no altitude is de...
5. SIDs will have a "top altitude;" the "top altitude" is th...
1. Lateral route clearance:
2. Routing with assigned altitude:
3. (A pilot filed a flight plan to the Johnston Airport usin...
4. (Using the Example 3 flight plan, ATC determines the
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5. (An aircraft was issued the Suzan Two departure,
6. (An aircraft was issued the Teddd One departure,
7. (An aircraft was issued the Bbear Two departure,
9. (An aircraft was issued the Suzan Two departure,
7. Pilots cleared for vertical navigation using the
1. (Cactus 711 is cleared to climb via the Laura Two
2. (Cactus 711 is cleared to climb via the Laura Two
8. If prior to or after takeoff an altitude
8. (An aircraft was issued the Bizee Two departure, "climb
10,000). The clearance will read:
9. Altitude restrictions published on an ODP are
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i. PBN Departure Procedures
1. All public PBN SIDs and graphic ODPs are
2. In the U.S., a specific procedure"s PBN
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5-3-1. ARTCC Communications
a. Direct Communications, Controllers and
1. ARTCCs are capable of direct communications with IFR air ...
2. An ARTCC is divided into sectors. Each
3. Controller Pilot Data Link Communications
b. ATC Frequency Change Procedures.
1. The following phraseology will be used by
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1 ICAO Document 10037, Global Operational Data Link (GOLD) M...
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2. The following phraseology should be utilized
1. (Name) CENTER, (aircraft identification), LEVEL
2. (Name) CENTER, (aircraft identification), LEAVING
3. At times controllers will ask pilots to verify
c. ARTCC Radio Frequency Outage. ARTCCs
1. If two-way communications cannot be
2. When an ARTCC radio frequency failure
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d. Oakland Oceanic FIR. The use of CPDLC and
e. New York Oceanic FIR. The use of CPDLC
5-3-2. Position Reporting
a. Position Identification.
1. When a position report is to be made passing
2. When a position report is made passing a
3. When an aural or a light panel indication is
4. If a position is given with respect to distance
5. Except for terminal area transition purposes,
b. Position Reporting Points. CFRs require
c. Position Reporting Requirements.
1. Flights Along Airways or Routes. A
2. Flights Along a Direct Route. Regardless
3. Flights in a Radar Environment. When
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4. Flights in an Oceanic (Non-radar) Environment. Pilots mus...
d. Position Report Items:
1. Position reports should include the following items:
5-3-3. Additional Reports
a. The following reports should be made to
1. At all times.
10 knots (whichever is greater) from that filed in the
1. Other equipment installed in an aircraft may effectively
2. When reporting GPS anomalies, include the location
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2. When not in radar contact.
b. Pilots encountering weather conditions which
14 CFR Section 91.183(B) and (C).
5-3-4. Airways and Route Systems
a. Three fixed route systems are established for air
1. The VOR and L/MF (nondirectional radio
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2. The jet route system consists of jet routes
3. Area Navigation (RNAV) Routes.
b. Operation above FL 450 may be conducted on
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c. Radar Vectors. Controllers may vector aircraft within con...
d. When flying in Canadian airspace, pilots are
1. Special attention should be given to the parts
2. Segments of VOR airways and high level
FIG 5-3-1
5-3-5. Airway or Route Course Changes
a. Pilots of aircraft are required to adhere to
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b. Turns which begin at or after fix passage may
c. Without such actions as leading a turn, aircraft
290 knots TAS are not prevalent and the provision of
5-3-6. Changeover Points (COPs)
a. COPs are prescribed for Federal airways, jet
b. The COP is normally located midway between
c. COPs are established for the purpose of
5-3-7. Minimum Turning Altitude (MTA)
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5-3-8. Holding
a. Whenever an aircraft is cleared to a fix other
b. If the holding pattern is charted and the
c. If no holding pattern is charted and holding
d. When an aircraft is 3 minutes or less from a
e. When no delay is expected, the controller
f. Pilots should report to ATC the time and
g. When holding at a VOR station, pilots should
h. Patterns at the most generally used holding
i. An ATC clearance requiring an aircraft to hold
1. Direction of holding from the fix in terms of
2. Holding fix (the fix may be omitted if
3. Radial, course, bearing, airway or route on
4. Leg length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be
5. Direction of turn if left turns are to be made,
6. Time to expect further clearance and any
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FIG 5-3-2
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FIG 5-3-3
j. Holding pattern airspace protection is based on
1. Descriptive Terms.
2. Airspeeds.
6,001" - 14,000"
14,001" and above
14,000" may be restricted to a maximum airspeed of
210 KIAS. This nonstandard pattern will be depicted
e.g., (175). The aircraft should be at or below the
230 KIAS maximum, unless otherwise depicted.
10,000." or "All aircraft climb-in TRUCK holding
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FIG 5-3-4
3. Entry Procedures. Holding protected
4. Timing.
1 1/2 minutes (appropriate to altitude). Timing for
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5. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)/
FIG 5-3-7.) See Paragraph 1-1-17, Global Positioning System ...
FIG 5-3-5
FIG 5-3-6
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6. Use of RNAV Distance in lieu of DME
FIG 5-3-7
7. Use of RNAV Guidance and Holding.
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FIG 5-3-8). With a strong headwind against the
FIG 5-3-8
FIG 5-3-9
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8. Pilot Action. The following actions are
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25 degree bank angle will reduce potential excursions
k. When holding at a fix and instructions are
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l. Radar surveillance of holding pattern airspace
1. Whenever aircraft are holding, ATC will
2. The controller will attempt to detect any
3. ATC is responsible for traffic and obstruction
4. If an aircraft is established in a published
m. For those holding patterns where there are no
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5-4-1. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
a. A STAR is an ATC coded IFR arrival route
1. STAR procedures may have mandatory
14 CFR Section 91.185(c)(2)(iii).
2. Pilots navigating on, or navigating a
1. When otherwise cleared along a route or procedure that
2. ATC anticipates pilots will begin adjusting speed the
3. The "descend via" is used in conjunction with STARs to
4. Air traffic will assign an altitude to cross the waypoint...
5. Minimum en route altitudes (MEA) are not considered
1. Lateral/routing clearance only.
2. Routing with assigned altitude.
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3. Lateral/routing and vertical navigation clearance.
4. Lateral/routing and vertical navigation clearance
10,000. Upon reaching 10,000, aircraft should maintain
10,000 until cleared by ATC to continue to descend.
1. Delta 121 is cleared to descend via the Eagul Five
2. Delta 121 is cleared to descend via the Eagul Five arriva...
3. (JetBlue 602 is cleared to descend via the Ivane Two arri...
b. Pilots of IFR aircraft destined to locations for
c. Use of STARs requires pilot possession of at
5. Direct routing to intercept a STAR and vertical navigatio...
d. STAR charts are published in the Terminal
1. Public PBN STARs are normally designed
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2. In the U.S., a specific procedure"s PBN
c. When crossing altitudes and speed restrictions
5-4-3. Approach Control
5-4-2. Local Flow Traffic Management Program
a. This program is a continuing effort by the FAA
b. A fuel efficient descent is basically an
a. Approach control is responsible for controlling
b. Radar Approach Control.
1. Where radar is approved for approach control
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3. Whether aircraft are vectored to the appropriate final ap...
5-4-4. Advance Information on Instrument
a. When landing at airports with approach control
b. The purpose of this information is to aid the
c. Aircraft destined to uncontrolled airports,
1. ASOS/AWSS/AWOS should be set to provide one-
2. ARTCCs are approved for and may provide
2. Controllers will consider the long line disseminated
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d. When making an IFR approach to an airport not
5-4-5. Instrument Approach Procedure
a. 14 CFR Section 91.175(a), Instrument approaches to civil ...
1. IAPs (standard and special, civil and military)
2. Not all IAPs are published in chart form.
3. The navigation equipment required to join
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4. Approach minimums are based on the local
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40 feet. When the altimeter must be obtained from a
5. A pilot adhering to the altitudes, flight paths,
6. IAPs are designed to provide an IFR descent
7. TERPS criterire provided for the following
b. The method used to depict prescribed altitudes
1. Minimum altitude will be depicted with the
e.g., 3000.
2. Maximum altitude will be depicted with the
e.g., 4000.
3. Mandatory altitude will be depicted with the
4. Recommended altitude will be depicted with
1. Pilots are cautioned to adhere to altitudes as prescribed
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2. The ILS glide slope is intended to be intercepted at the
5. Altitude restrictions depicted at stepdown
3. Approaches used for simultaneous (parallel) independent a...
5-4-15 and 5-4-16). For simultaneous close parallel
4. When parallel approach courses are less than 2500 feet
c. Minimum Safe Altitudes (MSA) are published
1,000 feet of clearance over all obstacles, but do not
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FIG 5-4-1
d. Terminal Arrival Area (TAA)
1. The TAA provides a transition from the en
2. The basic design of the RNAV procedure
FIG 5-4-2 and FIG 5-4-3 for the Basic "T" TAA
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FIG 5-4-2
FIG 5-4-3
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3. The standard TAA based on the "T" design
FIG 5-4-4). TAA area lateral boundaries are
FIG 5-4-4
4. Entry from the terminal area onto the
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5. Altitudes published within the TAA replace
FIG 5-4-5, pilots within the left or right-base areas
FIG 5-4-5
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6. U.S. Government charts depict TAAs using
FIG 5-4-6
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7. TAAs may be modified from the standard size
FIG 5-4-7
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FIG 5-4-8
FIG 5-4-9
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8. When an airway does not cross the lateral
FIG 5-4-10
9. Each waypoint on the "T" is assigned a
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FIG 5-4-11
e. Minimum Vectoring Altitudes (MVAs) are
1. The minimum vectoring altitude in each
1,000 feet of obstacle clearance may be authorized
300 feet above the floor of controlled airspace.
2. Because of differences in the areas considered for MVA, a...
3. The MVA/MIA may be lower than the TAA
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f. Circling. Circling minimums charted on an
FIG 5-4-12
1572 - 5 1264 (1300 - 5)
1180 / 24
872 (900 - )
1180 / 40
872 (900 - )
1180 / 2
872 (900 - 2)
1180 / 2 
872 (900 - 2 )
1180 - 1
870 (900 - 1)
1180 - 1 
870 (900 - 1 )
1180 - 2 
870 (900 - 2 )
1180 - 2 
870 (900 - 2 )
FIG 5-4-13
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2. Circling MDA. The circling MDA will
3. Vertical guidance (LNAV/VNAV). A line is
h. The Visual Descent Point (VDP), identified by
1. VGSI systems may be used as a visual aid to
2. Pilots not equipped to receive the VDP should
3. On a straight-in nonprecision IAP, descent
i. A visual segment obstruction evaluation is
1. Unlighted obstacle penetrations may result in
2. Use of a VGSI may be approved in lieu of
j. The highest obstacle (man-made, terrain, or
k. Vertical Descent Angle (VDA). FAA policy is
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1. Obstacles may penetrate the obstacle identification surfa...
2. The threshold crossing height (TCH) used to
3. Pilots may use the published angle and
FIG 5-4-14
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4. A straight-in aligned procedure may be
l. In isolated cases, an IAP may contain a
1. The depicted ground track associated with the
2. Missed approach obstacle clearance is
14 CFR  91.175 and related rules. It is not a function of
m. Area Navigation (RNAV) Instrument
FIG 5-4-6). This format avoids unnecessary
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1. The minima lines are:
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2. Other systems may be authorized to utilize
3. ILS or RNAV (GPS) charts.
4. Required Navigation Performance (RNP).
5. Chart Terminology.
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6. The MINIMA FORMAT will also change
7. Chart Symbology changed slightly to
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5-4-6. Approach Clearance
a. An aircraft which has been cleared to a holding
b. If a feeder route to an IAF begins at a fix located
c. If a route of flight directly to the initial approach
d. The name of an instrument approach, as
e. The following applies to aircraft on radar
1. Maintain the last altitude assigned by ATC
2. Continue on the vector heading until
3. Once reaching the final approach fix via the
4. If proceeding to an IAF with a published
5. If cleared to an IAF/IF vi NoPT route, or
6. In addition to the above, RNAV aircraft may
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7. RNAV aircraft may be issued a clearance
1. In anticipation of a clearance by ATC to any fix publishe...
2. Selection of "Vectors-to-Final" or "Vectors" option for
f. An RF leg is defined as a constant radius circular
g. When necessary to cancel a previously issued
5-4-7. Instrument Approach Procedures
a. Aircraft approach category means a grouping of
1. Category A: Speed less than 91 knots.
2. Category B: Speed 91 knots or more but less
3. Category C: Speed 121 knots or more but
4. Category D: Speed 141 knots or more but
5. Category E: Speed 166 knots or more.
3. ATC will not clear aircraft direct to any
b. When operating on an unpublished route or
1. Via published transitions, or
2. In accordance with paragraph e6 above, and
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1. The altitude assigned will assure IFR obstruction clearan...
2. An aircraft is not established on an approach while
c. Several IAPs, using various navigation and
d. The name of an instrument approach, as
e. Except when being radar vectored to the final
f. Pilots planning flights to locations which are
g. Pilots should not rely on radar to identify a fix
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h. If a missed approach is required, advise ATC
5-4-8. Special Instrument Approach
5-4-9. Procedure Turn and Hold-in-lieu of
a. A procedure turn is the maneuver prescribed
1. On U.S. Government charts, a barbed arrow
45 degree type procedure turn. However, the point at
80 degree  260 degree course reversal. Racetrack
2. Descent to the procedure turn (PT) completion altitude fr...
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FIG 5-4-18). Absence of a chart note or specified
FIG 5-4-15
FIG 5-4-16
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FIG 5-4-17
FIG 5-4-18
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3. When the approach procedure involves a
200 knots (IAS) should be observed from first
10 miles. This may be reduced to a minimum of
5 miles where only Category A or helicopter aircraft
4. A teardrop procedure or penetration turn may
5. A holding pattern in lieu of procedure turn
6. A procedure turn is not required when an
b. Limitations on Procedure Turns
1. In the case of a radar initial approach to a final
2. When a teardrop procedure turn is depicted
3. When a holding pattern replaces a procedure
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4. The absence of the procedure turn barb in the
5-4-10. Timed Approaches from a Holding
a. TIMED APPROACHES may be conducted
1. A control tower is in operation at the airport
2. Direct communications are maintained between the pilot an...
3. If more than one missed approach procedure
4. If only one missed approach procedure is
5. When cleared for the approach, pilots must
b. Although the controller will not specifically
c. Each pilot in an approach sequence will be given
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FIG 5-4-19
1000 FT.
1000 FT.
1000 FT.
1000 FT.
30 SEC.
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12:07. However, if expecting headwind on final approach, the...
5-4-11. Radar Approaches
a. The only airborne radio equipment required for
b. A radar approach may be given to any aircraft
c. PAR and ASR minimums are published on
1. Precision Approach (PAR). A PAR is one in
30 seconds before it occurs and when to start descent.
e.g., "well above glidepath, coming down rapidly."
2. Surveillance Approach (ASR). An ASR is
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1. The published MDA for straight-in approaches will be
c. Advisory information, derived from radar
3. NO-GYRO Approach. This approach is
b. Prior to starting final approach, the pilot will be
1. Passing the final approach fix inbound
2. Trend advisories with respect to elevation
5-4-12. Radar Monitoring of Instrument
3. If, after repeated advisories, the aircraft
a. PAR facilities operated by the FAA and the
d. Radar service is automatically terminated upon
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5-4-13. Simultaneous Approaches to Parallel Runways
FIG 5-4-20
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a. ATC procedures permit ILS/RNAV/GLS
b. Depending on weather conditions, traffic
c. Parallel approach operations demand heightened pilot situ...
d. The close proximity of adjacent aircraft
e. Strict radio discipline is mandatory during
f. Use of Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems
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5-4-14. Simultaneous Dependent Approaches
FIG 5-4-21
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a. Simultaneous dependent approaches are an
b. A simultaneous dependent approach differs
c. A minimum of 1.0 NM radar separation
3,600 feet apart. A minimum of 1.5 NM radar
2.5 NM in certain circumstances. In addition, a
d. Whenever parallel approaches are in use, pilots
e. At certain airports, simultaneous dependent
2,500 feet apart. In this case, ATC will provide no less
1. Reduced diagonal spacing is only permitted
2. All aircraft must descend on the glideslope
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5-4-15. Simultaneous Independent ILS/RNAV/GLS Approaches
FIG 5-4-22
a. System. An approach system permitting simultaneous approa...
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b. Radar Services. These services are provided for
1. During turn on to parallel final approach,
2. The final monitor controller will have the
5. If a deviating aircraft fails to respond to such
3. Pilots will be instructed to contact the tower
6. Radar monitoring will automatically be
4. Aircraft observed to overshoot the turn-on or
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5-4-16. Simultaneous Close Parallel PRM Approaches and Simul...
FIG 5-4-23
a. System.
1. PRM is an acronym for the high update rate
2. Simultaneous Close Parallel PRM approaches, whether condu...
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b. Requirements and Procedures. Besides system
1. Pilot Training Requirement. Pilots must
129, and 135, pilots must comply with FAA-
c. ATC Directed Breakout. An ATC directed
d. Dual Communications. The aircraft flying the
e. Radar Services.
1. During turn on to parallel final approach,
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2. The final monitor controller will have the
3. Pilots will be instructed to contact the tower
f. Attention All Users Page (AAUP). At airports
4. To ensure separation is maintained, and in
5. Aircraft observed to overshoot the turn or to
6. If a deviating aircraft fails to respond to such
7. Radar monitoring will automatically be
1. Review of the procedure for executing a
2. Breakout phraseology beginning with the
3. Descending on the glideslope/glidepath
4. Briefing the PRM approach also satisfies the
5. Description of the dual communications
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FIG 5-4-24
g. Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approach
1. SOIA is a procedure used to conduct
3,000 feet, but at least 750 feet apart. The SOIA
2. The straight-in PRM approach plates used in
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3. Controllers monitor the SOIA PRM approaches in exactly th...
4. In SOIA, the approach course separation
5. Flight Management System (FMS) coding of
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FIG 5-4-25
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6. SOIA PRM approaches utilize the same dual
7. Recap.
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5-4-17. Simultaneous Converging
a. ATC may conduct instrument approaches
b. The basic concept requires that dedicated,
c. Other requirements are: radar availability,
d. Whenever simultaneous converging approaches are in use, a...
5-4-18. RNP AR Instrument Approach
a. Unique characteristics of RNP AR Approaches
1. RNP value. Each published line of minima
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2. Curved path procedures. Some RNP approaches have a curved...
3. RNP required for extraction or not.
b. Types of RNP AR Approach Operations
1. RNP Stand-alone Approach Operations.
2. RNP Parallel Approach (RPA) Operations. RNP AR procedures...
FIG 5-4-26
4. Non-standard speeds or climb gradients.
5. Temperature Limits. For aircraft using
6. Aircraft size. The achieved minimums may
3. RNP Parallel Approach Runway Transitions (RPAT) Operation...
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FIG 5-4-27
b. Aircraft that will execute a side-step maneuver
4. RNP Converging Runway Operations. At
FIG 5-4-28
c. Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will
5-4-20. Approach and Landing Minimums
a. Landing Minimums. The rules applicable to
b. Obstacle Clearance. Final approach obstacle
5-4-19. Side-step Maneuver
a. ATC may authorize a standard instrument
1 1 /4
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1. Circling approach protected areas are defined
FIG 5-4-29
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FIG 5-4-30
2. Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ). A
FIG 5-4-31
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c. Straight-in Minimums are shown on the IAP
d. Side-Step Maneuver Minimums. Landing
e. Published Approach Minimums. Approach
f. Circling Minimums. In some busy terminal
1. Maneuver the shortest path to the base or
2. It should be recognized that circling
3. At airports without a control tower, it may be
4. The missed approach point (MAP) varies
g. Instrument Approach at a Military Field.
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5-4-21. Missed Approach
a. When a landing cannot be accomplished, advise
b. Obstacle protection for missed approach is
c. If visual reference is lost while circling-to-land
d. At locations where ATC radar service is
e. Some locations may have a preplanned alternate
f. When approach has been missed, request
g. Pilots must ensure that they have climbed to a
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h. A clearance for an instrument approach
FIG 5-4-33
109.2 CNU
10 NM
2600 direct to VOR
5.7 NM
FIG 5-4-32
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5-4-22. Use of Enhanced Flight Vision
a. Introduction. An EFVS uses a head-up display
1. EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout.
2. EFVS operations to 100 feet above the
b. EFVS Operations to Touchdown and Rollout. An EFVS operati...
14 CFR  91.176(a).
c. EFVS Operations to 100 Feet Above the
FIG 5-4-35.) Natural vision must be used to descend
100 feet above the TDZE can be found in
14 CFR  91.176(b).
d. EFVS Equipment Requirements. An EFVS
100 feet above the TDZE can be found in
14 CFR  91.176(b)(1). An operator can determine
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FIG 5-4-34
FIG 5-4-35
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e. Operating Requirements. Any operator who
f. Currently, EFVS operations in rotorcraft can
g. A pilot who conducts EFVS operations must
14 CFR  61.66, 91.1065, 121.441, Appendix F to
h. Enhanced Flight Visibility and Visual
14 CFR  91.176(a) or (b), a pilot must make a
i. Flight Planning and Beginning or Continuing
14 CFR  91.176(a) or (b) and their authorization to
j. Missed Approach Considerations. A missed
k. Light Emitting Diode (LED) Airport Lighting Impact on EFV...
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l. Other Vision Systems. An Enhanced Vision
m. Additional Information. Operational criteria
90-106, Enhanced Flight Vision Systems, and
5-4-23. Visual Approach
a. A visual approach is conducted on an IFR flight
b. Operating to an Airport Without Weather
c. Operating to an Airport With an Operating
30 degrees of final, or on the final, these operations
d. Separation Responsibilities. If the pilot has
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e. A visual approach is not an IAP and therefore
e. When landmarks used for navigation are not
f. Visual approaches reduce pilot/controller workload and ex...
g. Authorization to conduct a visual approach is an
h. Radar service is automatically terminated,
5-4-24. Charted Visual Flight Procedure
a. CVFPs are charted visual approaches established for envir...
b. These procedures will be used only at airports
f. CVFPs usually begin within 20 flying miles
g. Published weather minimums for CVFPs are
h. CVFPs are not instrument approaches and do
i. ATC will not issue clearances for CVFPs when
j. ATC will clear aircraft for a CVFP after the pilot
k. Pilots should advise ATC if at any point they are
5-4-25. Contact Approach
a. Pilots operating in accordance with an IFR
b. Controllers may authorize a contact approach
1. The contact approach is specifically requested by the pil...
2. The reported ground visibility at the
c. Most approach charts will depict some
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c. A contact approach is an approach procedure
5-4-26. Landing Priority
5-4-27. Overhead Approach Maneuver
a. Pilots operating in accordance with an
FIG 5-4-36.) The existence of a standard overhead
1. Pattern altitude and direction of traffic. This
2. Request for a report on initial approach.
3. "Break" information and a request for the
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FIG 5-4-36
180 TURN
3 - 5 NM
180 TURN
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5-5-1. General
a. The roles and responsibilities of the pilot and
b. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly
5-5-2. Air Traffic Clearance
a. Pilot.
1. Acknowledges receipt and understanding of
2. Reads back any hold short of runway
3. Requests clarification or amendment, as
4. Promptly complies with an air traffic
c. The air traffic controller is responsible to give
d. In order to maintain a safe and efficient air
1. Issues appropriate clearances for the operation to be con...
e. The responsibilities of the pilot and the
2. Assigns altitudes in IFR clearances that are at
f. The following, while not intended to be all
b. Controller.
3. Ensures acknowledgement by the pilot for
4. Ensures that readbacks by the pilot of
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5-5-3. Contact Approach
a. Pilot.
1. Must request a contact approach and makes it
2. By requesting the contact approach, indicates
3. Assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance while co...
4. Advises ATC immediately if unable to
5. Is aware that if radar service is being received,
b. Controller.
1. Issues clearance for a contact approach only
2. Before issuing the clearance, ascertains that
3. Provides approved separation between the
1,000 feet below any IFR traffic but not below
4. Issues alternative instructions if, in their
5-5-4. Instrument Approach
a. Pilot.
1. Be aware that the controller issues clearance
2. Follows the procedure as shown on the IAP,
3. Upon receipt of an approach clearance while
4. When applicable, apply cold temperature
b. Controller.
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5-5-5. Missed Approach
a. Pilot.
1. Executes a missed approach when one of the
b. Controller.
1. Issues an approved alternate missed approach
2. May vector a radar identified aircraft
3. In response to the pilot"s stated intentions,
2. Advises ATC that a missed approach will be
5-5-6. Radar Vectors
3. Complies with the missed approach instructions for the IA...
1. Promptly complies with headings and
4. If executing a missed approach prior to
3. If operating VFR and compliance with any
5. When applicable, apply cold temperature
6. Following a missed approach, requests
a. Pilot.
2. Questions any assigned heading or altitude
b. Controller.
1. Vectors aircraft in Class A, Class B, Class C,
2. Vectors aircraft in Class A, Class B, Class C,
3. Vectors IFR aircraft at or above minimum
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2. Be aware that this service is not always
b. Controller.
1. Issues a safety alert if aware an aircraft under
2. Discontinue further alerts if informed by the
5-5-8. See and Avoid
a. Pilot. When meteorological conditions permit,
b. Controller.
1. Provides radar traffic information to radar
2. Issues safety alerts to aircraft under their
5-5-9. Speed Adjustments
a. Pilot.
1. Advises ATC any time cruising airspeed
2. Complies with speed adjustments from ATC
3. When complying with speed adjustment
b. Controller.
1. Assigns speed adjustments to aircraft when
2. Adheres to the restrictions published in FAA
3. Avoids speed adjustments requiring alternate
4. Assigns speed adjustments to a specified IAS
5. Terminates ATC-assigned speed adjustments
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6. Gives due consideration to aircraft capabilities to reduc...
7. Does not assign speed adjustments to aircraft
5-5-10. Traffic Advisories (Traffic
a. Pilot.
1. Acknowledges receipt of traffic advisories.
2. Informs controller if traffic in sight.
3. Advises ATC if a vector to avoid traffic is
4. Does not expect to receive radar traffic
5. Advises controller if service is not desired.
5-5-11. Visual Approach
a. Pilot.
1. If a visual approach is not desired, advises
2. Complies with controller"s instructions for
3. The pilot must, at all times, have either the
4. If the pilot accepts a visual approach
5. Advise ATC immediately if the pilot is unable
6. Be aware that radar service is automatically
7. Be aware that there may be other traffic in the
b. Controller.
2. Provides vectors to assist aircraft to avoid
1. Do not clear an aircraft for a visual approach
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4. Continue flight following and traffic information until t...
5-5-13. VFR-on-top
5. For all aircraft, inform the pilot when the
1. This clearance must be requested by the pilot
6. When weather is available for the destination
5-5-12. Visual Separation
a. Pilot.
1. Acceptance of instructions to follow another
2. If instructed by ATC to follow another aircraft
3. The pilot also accepts responsibility for wake
b. Controller. Applies visual separation only:
1. Within the terminal area when a controller
2. Pilots are responsible to maintain visual
3. Within en route airspace when aircraft are on
a. Pilot.
2. By requesting a VFR-on-top clearance, the
3. Should advise ATC prior to any altitude
b. Controller.
1. May clear an aircraft to maintain VFR-on-top
2. Informs the pilot of an aircraft cleared to
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5-5-14. Instrument Departures
a. Pilot.
1. Prior to departure considers the type of terrain
2. Determines if obstruction avoidance can be
3. Determines whether an obstacle departure
4. At airports where IAPs have not been
b. Controller.
1. At locations with airport traffic control
2. At locations without airport traffic control
3. When the initial heading will take the aircraft
4. Includes established departure procedures as
5-5-15. Minimum Fuel Advisory
a. Pilot.
1. Advise ATC of your minimum fuel status
2. Be aware this is not an emergency situation,
3. On initial contact the term "minimum fuel"
4. Be aware a minimum fuel advisory does not
5. If the remaining usable fuel supply suggests
b. Controller.
1. When an aircraft declares a state of minimum
2. Be alert for any occurrence which might
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4. Pilots must not change any database
5. Pilots of FMS-equipped aircraft, who are
6. For RNAV 1 DPs and STARs, pilots must use
7. For RNAV 1 DPs and STARs, pilots of
8. For procedures or routes requiring the use of
9. RNAV terminal procedures (DP and STAR)
10. RAIM Prediction: If TSO-C129 equipment
11. Definition of "established" for RNAV and
1. Pilots must be aware of how their navigation system
2. Pilots flying FMS equipped aircraft with barometric
3. Pilots flying TSO-C129 navigation system equipped
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5-6-1. National Security
5-6-2. National Security Requirements
a. Pursuant to 14 CFR 99.7, Special Security
b. In addition to the requirements prescribed in
14 CFR 99.7; 49 United States Code (USC) 40103,
c. Due to increased security measures in place at
91.138 (Temporary flight restrictions in national
d. Noncompliance with the national security
e. Pilots of aircraft that do not adhere to the
5-6-3. Definitions
a. Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) means
b. Defense Area means any airspace of the
c. U.S. territorial airspace, for the purposes of this
d. To U.S. territorial airspace means any flight
e. From U.S. territorial airspace means any flight
f. Within U.S. territorial airspace means any flight
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g. Transit or transiting U.S. territorial airspace
h. Aeronautical facility, for the purposes of this
5-6-4. ADIZ Requirements
a. To facilitate early identification of all aircraft in
14 CFR 99.
b. Requirements for aircraft operations are as
1. Transponder Requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by ...
2. Two-way Radio. In accordance with
14 CFR 99.9, Radio Requirements, any person
3. Flight Plan. In accordance with
14 CFR 99.11, Flight Plan Requirements, and
14 CFR 99.9, except as specified in subparagraph
5-6-4e, no person may operate an aircraft into,
c. Position Reporting Before Penetration of
1. IFR flights in controlled airspace. The pilot
14 CFR 91.183(a), IFR Communications.)
2. DVFR flights and IFR flights in uncontrolled airspace:
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3. Foreign civil aircraft. If the pilot of a foreign
d. Land-Based ADIZ. Land-Based ADIZ are
e. Exceptions to ADIZ requirements.
1. Except for the national security requirements
14 CFR Part 99 described in this section do not apply
10 NM of the point of departure;
2. An FAA air route traffic control center
f. A VFR flight plan filed inflight makes an
5-6-5. Civil Aircraft Operations To or From
a. Civil aircraft, except as described in subparagraph 5-6-5...
1. File and are on an active flight plan (IFR,
2. Are equipped with an operational transponder with altitud...
3. Maintain two-way radio communications
4. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ
5. Comply with all applicable U.S. Customs and
6. Are in receipt of, and are operating in
b. Civil aircraft registered in the U.S., Canada, or
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1. Depart and land at an airport within the U.S.
2. Enter or exit U.S. territorial airspace over
3. File and are on an active flight plan;
4. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ
5. Squawk 1200 if VFR and equipped with a
6. Comply with all applicable U.S. CBP
c. CBP APIS Information. Information about
5-6-6. Civil Aircraft Operations Within U.S.
a. Civil aircraft with a maximum certificated
b. Civil aircraft with a maximum certificated
c. Civil aircraft with a maximum certificated
1. File and are on an active flight plan (IFR or
2. Equipped with an operational transponder
3. Maintain two-way radio communications
4. Aircraft not registered in the U.S. must
5-6-6c6. below;
5. Are in receipt of, and are operating in
6. Aircraft not registered in the U.S., when
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5-6-7. Civil Aircraft Operations Transiting
a. Civil aircraft (except those operating in
5-6-7d, and 5-6-7e) are authorized to transit U.S.
1. File and are on an active flight plan (IFR,
2. Equipped with an operational transponder
3. Maintain two-way radio communications
4. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ
5. Are operating under an approved TSA
100,309 pounds (45,500 kgs);
6. Are in receipt of, and are operating in
b. Civil aircraft registered in Canada or Mexico,
c. Civil aircraft registered in Canada, Mexico,
1. File and are on an active flight plan (IFR,
2. Equipped with an operational transponder
3. Maintain two-way radio communications
4. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ
d. Civil aircraft registered in Canada, Mexico,
5-6-9 for FAA/TSA airspace waiver information).
e. Civil aircraft registered in the U.S., Canada, or
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1. Enter and exit U.S. territorial airspace over
2. File and are on an active flight plan;
3. Squawk 1200 if VFR and equipped with a
4. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ
5-6-8. Foreign State Aircraft Operations
a. Foreign state aircraft are authorized to operate
1. File and are on an active IFR flight plan;
2. Equipped with an operational transponder
3. Maintain two-way radio communications
4. Comply with all other applicable ADIZ
b. Diplomatic Clearances. Foreign state aircraft
5-6-8h below.
1. Information about diplomatic clearances is
2. A diplomatic clearance may be initiated by
c. An FAA routing authorization for state aircraft
d. Foreign state aircraft operating with a diplomatic cleara...
e. A foreign aircraft that operates to or from,
f. A foreign aircraft described in subparagraph
5-6-8e above may operate from or within U.S.
1. A foreign air carrier that holds valid FAA Part
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5-6-9. FAA/TSA Airspace Waivers
a. Operators may submit requests for FAA/TSA
b. Information regarding FAA/TSA airspace
c. All existing FAA/TSA waivers issued under
5-6-10. TSA Aviation Security Programs
a. Applicants for U.S. air operator certificates will
b. For information about applicable TSA security
1. U.S. air carriers and commercial operators
2. Foreign air carriers must contact their
5-6-11. FAA Flight Routing Authorizations
a. Information about FAA routing authorizations
1. FAA website
2. Phone by contacting the FAA System
b. Special Interest Countries. The U.S. State
c. Aircraft operating with the ICAO 3LD assigned
d. FAA routing authorizations will only be granted
5-6-12. Emergency Security Control of Air
a. During defense emergency or air defense
32 CFR Part 245, Plan for the Emergency Security
b. Under the provisions of 32 CFR Part 245, the
c. At the time a portion or all of ESCAT is
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5-6-13. Interception Procedures
a. General.
1. In conjunction with the FAA, Air Defense
2. When specific information is required (i.e.,
3. All aircraft operating in US national airspace
b. Fighter intercept phases (See FIG 5-6-1).
1. Approach Phase.
2. Identification Phase.
3. Post Intercept Phase.
500 feet separation and commencing from slightly
1. NORAD interceptors will take every precaution to
2. During Night/IMC, the intercept will be from below
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FIG 5-6-1
c. Helicopter Intercept phases (See FIG 5-6-2)
1. Approach Phase.
2. Identification Phase.
3. Post Intercept Phase.
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FIG 5-6-2
d. Summary of Intercepted Aircraft Actions. An
1. Adhere to instructions relayed through the
2. Attempt to establish radio communications
3. If transponder equipped, select Mode 3/A
4. The crew of the intercepted aircraft must
5-6-14. Law Enforcement Operations by
a. Special law enforcement operations.
1. Special law enforcement operations include
2. To facilitate accomplishment of these special
3. Additionally, some departments and agencies
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5-6-15. Interception Signals
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5-6-16. ADIZ Boundaries and Designated Mountainous Areas (Se...
FIG 5-6-3
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5-6-17. Visual Warning System (VWS)
c. Pilots planning to operate aircraft in or near the
a. If you are communicating with ATC, and this
b. If this signal is directed at you, and you are not
d. More details including a video demonstration of
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6-1-1. Pilot Responsibility and Authority
a. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft is directly
14 CFR Section 91.3(b).
b. If the emergency authority of 14 CFR
c. Unless deviation is necessary under the
14 CFR Section 91.185.
6-1-2. Emergency Condition- Request
a. An emergency can be either a distress or
b. Pilots who become apprehensive for their safety
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6-2-1. Radar Service for VFR Aircraft in
a. Radar equipped ATC facilities can provide
b. Experience has shown that many pilots who are
1. If a course of action is available which will
2. If continued flight in VFR conditions is not
3. If the pilot is instrument rated and current, and
6-2-2. Transponder Emergency Operation
a. When a distress or urgency condition is
b. Radar facilities are equipped so that Code 7700
6-2-3. Intercept and Escort
a. The concept of airborne intercept and escort is
b. If specifically requested by a pilot in difficulty
c. It is the pilot"s prerogative to refuse intercept
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6-2-4. Emergency Locator Transmitter
a. General.
1. ELTs are required for most General Aviation
14 CFR SECTION 91.207.
2. ELTs of various types were developed as a
121.5 MHz, 243.0 MHz, and the newer 406 MHz.
406 MHz ELT models can also be encoded with the
406 MHz ELT activates, the Cospas-Sarsat satellite
406 MHz ELTs permit the Cospas-Sarsat satellite
121.5 MHz homing transmitter to aid searchers in
243.0 MHz.
406 MHz ELT, SAR forces" normal practice is to wait
3. The Cospas-Sarsat system has announced the
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121.5 MHz or 243.0 MHz ELT"s onboard will have
121.5/243.0 MHz ELT.
b. Testing.
1. ELTs should be tested in accordance with the
2. When this cannot be done, aircraft operational testing is...
c. False Alarms.
1. Caution should be exercised to prevent the
2. Numerous cases of inadvertent activation
d. Inflight Monitoring and Reporting.
1. Pilots are encouraged to monitor 121.5 MHz
243.0 MHz. If possible, positions should be given
6-2-5. FAA K-9 Explosives Detection
a. The FAA"s Office of Civil Aviation Security
1972. Through a unique agreement with law
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b. The following list shows the locations of
c. If due to weather or other considerations an
6-2-6. Search and Rescue
a. General. SAR is a lifesaving service provided
b. National Search and Rescue Plan. By federal
c. Coast Guard Rescue Coordination Centers.
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d. Air Force Rescue Coordination Centers.
48 Contiguous States
e. Joint Rescue Coordination Center.
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3. If you land en route and are delayed more than
30 minutes, report this information to the nearest FSS
4. If your ETE changes by 30 minutes or more,
2. Stand in the open when you make the signals.
5. It is important that you close your flight plan
6. The rapidity of rescue on land or water will
h. Survival Equipment.
1. For flight over uninhabited land areas, it is
2. If a forced landing occurs at sea, chances for
i. Body Signal Illustrations.
1. If you are forced down and are able to attract
3. Be sure the background, as seen from the air,
4. Go through the motions slowly and repeat
j. Observance of Downed Aircraft.
1. Determine if crash is marked with a yellow
2. If possible, determine type and number of
3. Fix the position of the crash as accurately as
4. Transmit the information to the nearest FAA
5. If circumstances permit, orbit the scene to
6. Immediately after landing, make a complete
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FIG 6-2-1
6. Pilot should acknowledge message by rocking wings from si...
FIG 6-2-2
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FIG 6-2-3
FIG 6-2-5
FIG 6-2-4
FIG 6-2-6
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FIG 6-2-7
FIG 6-2-9
FIG 6-2-8
FIG 6-2-10
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FIG 6-2-11
FIG 6-2-13
FIG 6-2-12
FIG 6-2-14
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FIG 6-2-15
FIG 6-2-16
FIG 6-2-17
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6-3-1. Distress and Urgency
a. A pilot who encounters a distress or urgency
b. Distress and urgency communications procedures discussed ...
c. The initial communication, and if considered
d. Distress communications have absolute priority
e. Normally, the station addressed will be the
f. The station addressed should immediately
g. All other stations, aircraft and ground, will
h. Although the frequency in use or other
121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz. Both have a range
6-3-2. Obtaining Emergency Assistance
a. A pilot in any distress or urgency condition
1. Climb, if possible, for improved communications, and bett...
2. If equipped with a radar beacon transponder
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3. Transmit a distress or urgency message
b. After establishing radio contact, comply with
c. When in a distress condition with bailout, crash
1. Time and circumstances permitting, transmit
2. Actuate your ELT if the installation permits.
3. For bailout, and for crash landing or ditching
4. If it becomes necessary to ditch, make every
5. After a crash landing, unless you have good
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6-3-3. Ditching Procedures
FIG 6-3-1
FIG 6-3-3
FIG 6-3-4
FIG 6-3-2
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FIG 6-3-5
a. A successful aircraft ditching is dependent on
1. Sea conditions and wind.
2. Type of aircraft.
3. Skill and technique of pilot.
b. Common oceanographic terminology.
1. Sea. The condition of the surface that is the
2. Wave (or Chop). The condition of the
3. Swell. The condition of the surface which
4. Swell Face. The side of the swell toward the
5. Primary Swell. The swell system having the
6. Secondary Swells. Those swell systems of
7. Fetch. The distance the waves have been
8. Swell Period. The time interval between the
9. Swell Velocity. The speed and direction of
10. Swell Direction. The direction from which
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11. Swell Height. The height between crest
c. In order to select a good heading when ditching
1. In ditching parallel to the swell, it makes little
2. If only one swell system exists, the problem
3. If the swell system is formidable, it is
4. The secondary swell system is often from the
d. The simplest method of estimating the wind
1. The behavior of the aircraft on making
2. When on final approach the pilot should look
3. Touchdown should be at the lowest speed and
e. Once preditching preparations are completed,
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1. If no power is available, a greater than normal
f. After Touchdown. In most cases drift, caused
6-3-4. Special Emergency (Air Piracy)
a. A special emergency is a condition of air piracy,
b. The pilot of an aircraft reporting a special
1. If circumstances permit, apply distress or
2. If circumstances do not permit the use of
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c. Air traffic controllers will acknowledge and
d. If it is possible to do so without jeopardizing the
1. Maintain a true airspeed of no more than
400 knots, and preferably an altitude of between
10,000 and 25,000 feet.
2. Fly a course toward the destination which the
e. If these procedures result in either radio contact
6-3-5. Fuel Dumping
a. Should it become necessary to dump fuel, the
b. Upon receipt of such a broadcast, pilots of
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6-4-1. Two-way Radio Communications
a. It is virtually impossible to provide regulations
14 CFR Section 91.3(b).
b. Whether two-way communications failure
c. In the event of two-way radio communications
1. General. Unless otherwise authorized by
2. VFR conditions. If the failure occurs in
3. IFR conditions. If the failure occurs in IFR
14 CFR Section 91.121(c)) for IFR operations; or
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2 above until that time/fix specified in subparagraph (c)
1. A pilot experiencing two-way radio failure at an
2. A pilot experiencing two-way radio failure while being
22 NM of the VOR. The pilot should remain at 2,700 feet
3. The MEA between nd b: 5,000 feet. The MEA
11,000 feet. The MEA between d and e: 7,000 feet. A pilot
6,000 to b, then climb to 8,000 feet (the altitude advised t...
11,000 at c, or prior to c if necessary to comply with an
6-4-2. Transponder Operation During
a. If an aircraft with a coded radar beacon
b. The pilot should understand that the aircraft
6-4-3. Reestablishing Radio Contact
a. In addition to monitoring the NAVAID voice
1. On the previously assigned frequency; or
2. With an FSS or *ARINC.
b. If communications are established with an FSS
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6-5-1. Discrete Emergency Frequency
6-5-2. Radio Call Signs
a. Direct contact between an emergency aircraft
b. Emergency aircraft at airports without an
FIG 6-5-1 through FIG 6-5-3 should be used. These
6-5-3. ARFF Emergency Hand Signals
FIG 6-5-1
FIG 6-5-2
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FIG 6-5-3
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7-1-1. National Weather Service Aviation
a. Weather service to aviation is a joint effort of the
5. Several NWS National Centers for Environmental Production...
b. NWS meteorologists are assigned to all air
c. Aviation Products
1. The NWS maintains an extensive surface,
2. Airport observations (METAR and SPECI)
3. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF) are
4. Inflight aviation advisories (for example,
6. NOAA operates two Volcanic Ash Advisory
7. Details on the products provided by the above
d. Weather element values may be expressed by
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7-1-2. FAA Weather Services
a. The FAA provides the Flight Service program,
b. The FAA maintains an extensive surface
c. Other Sources of Weather Information
1. In Alaska, Telephone Information Briefing
2. Weather and aeronautical information are
3. Pilots can access Leidos Flight Services via
7-1-3. Use of Aviation Weather Products
a. Air carriers and operators certificated under the
b. Operators not certificated under the provisions
c. The suite of available aviation weather product
d. The AWRP manages the transfer of aviation
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FIG 7-1-1
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e. The AWRP review and decision-making
1. Sponsorship of user needs.
2. R & D and controlled testing.
3. Experimental application.
4. Operational application.
f. Pilots and operators should be aware that
g. In addition, pilots and operators should be
h. With increased access to weather products via
i. The development of new weather products,
j. The FAA has identified three distinct types of
1. Observations. Raw weather data collected
2. Analysis. Enhanced depiction and/or interpretation of obs...
3. Forecasts. Predictions of the development
k. Not all sources of aviation weather information
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1. Federal Government. The FAA and NWS
2. Enhanced Weather Information System
3. Commercial Weather Information
7-1-4. Graphical Forecasts for Aviation
a. The GFA website is intended to provide the
3,000 ft increments from the surface up to 30,000 ft
b. Weather Products.
1. The Aviation Forecasts include gridded
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2. Observations & Warnings (Obs/Warn).
14 hours (rounded to the nearest hour). Users may
3. The GFA will be continuously updated and
4. GFA Static Images. Some users with
18 hours into the future. (See FIG 7-1-2 and
FIG 7-1-3.)
FIG 7-1-2
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FIG 7-1-3
7-1-5. Preflight Briefing
a. Flight Service Stations (FSS) are the primary
b. Standard Briefing. You should request a
1. Adverse Conditions. Significant meteorological and/or aer...
2. VFR Flight Not Recommended. When
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3. Synopsis. A brief statement describing the
4. Current Conditions. Reported weather
5. En Route Forecast. Forecast en route
6. Destination Forecast. The destination forecast for the pl...
7. Winds Aloft. Forecast winds aloft will be
8. Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs).
1. NOTAM information may be combined with current
2. Airway NOTAMs, procedural NOTAMs, and NOTAMs
9. ATC Delays. Any known ATC delays and
10. Pilots may obtain the following from
1. For the purpose of this paragraph, SUA and related
2. Pilots are encouraged to request updated information
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c. Abbreviated Briefing. Request an Abbreviated Briefing whe...
d. Outlook Briefing. You should request an
e. When filing a flight plan only, you will be asked
f. Inflight Briefing. You are encouraged to
g. Following any briefing, feel free to ask for any
7-1-6. Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories
a. Background
1. Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories are
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2. There are four types of inflight aviation
3. The Severe Weather Watch Bulletins (WWs),
3,000 square miles at any one time. However, if the
1. SIGMETs/AIRMET (or G-AIRMET) for the
2. SIGMETs/AIRMETs for Alaska
8 hours.
3. SIGMETs/AIRMETs for Hawaii and U.S.
1. In the CONUS, SIGMETs are issued when
2. In Alasknd Hawaii, SIGMETs are also
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3. SIGMETs are identified by an alphabetic
d. Convective SIGMET (WST)
1. Convective SIGMETs are issued in the
50 knots.
40 percent or more of an aret least 3,000 square
2. Any convective SIGMET implies severe or
3. Convective SIGMET bulletins are issued for
107 degrees west longitude with sufficient overlap to
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FIG 7-1-4
FIG 7-1-5
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e. SIGMET Outside the CONUS
1. Three NWS offices have been designated by
2. The offices which issue international SIGMETs are:
3. SIGMETs for outside the CONUS are issued
2602N7208W 2711N6807W. TOPS TO FL470. MOV NE
1. AIRMETs (WAs) are advisories of significant weather pheno...
0245 UTC. Unscheduled updates and corrections are
2. There are three AIRMETs: Sierra, Tango,
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040 ALG 40W HUH-30W HUH-30NNW SEA-40N
3. Graphical AIRMETs (G-AIRMETs),
00 through 06 hours correspond to the text AIRMET
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g. Watch Notification Messages
1. The Aviation Watch Notification Message.
2. Public Severe Thunderstorm Watch Notification Messages de...
1-inch hail or larger and/or wind gusts of 50 knots [58
3. Public Tornado Watch Notification Messages
4. Public severe thunderstorm and tornado
1250 AM CDT MON MAY 5 2011
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1250 AM CDT. CONTINUE...WW 239...WW 240...WW
241...WW 242...
5. Status reports are issued as needed to show
h. Center Weather Advisories (CWAs)
1. CWAs are unscheduled inflight, flow control,
2. The following example is a CWA issued from
7-1-7. Categorical Outlooks
a. Categorical outlook terms, describing general
1. LIFR (Low IFR). Ceiling less than 500 feet
2. IFR. Ceiling 500 to less than 1,000 feet
3. MVFR (Marginal VFR). Ceiling 1,000 to
3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive.
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4. VFR. Ceiling greater than 3,000 feet and
7-1-9. Transcribed Weather Broadcast
b. The cause of LIFR, IFR, or MVFR is indicated
1. LIFR CIG-low IFR due to low ceiling.
2. IFR FG-IFR due to visibility restricted by fog.
3. MVFR CIG HZ FU-marginal VFR due to both ceiling
4. IFR CIG RA WIND-IFR due to both low ceiling and
7-1-8. Telephone Information Briefing
a. TIBS, provided by FSS, is a system of
b. TIBS is not intended to be a substitute for
c. Pilots are encouraged to utilize TIBS, which can
7-1-10. Inflight Weather Broadcasts
a. Weather Advisory Broadcasts. ARTCCs
1. Attention all aircraft, SIGMET Delta Three, from Myton
2. Attention all aircraft, convective SIGMET Two Seven
3. Attention all aircraft, Kansas City Center weather
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1. Terminal control facilities have the option to limit the
2. In areas where HIWAS is available, ARTCC, Terminal
b. Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS). HIWA...
1. Where HIWAS is available, ARTCC and
2. Upon notification of an update to HIWAS,
3. HIWAS availability is notated with VOR
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FIG 7-1-6
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7-1-11. Flight Information Services (FIS)
a. FIS. FIS is a method of disseminating
1. Data link Service Providers (DLSP) - DLSP
2. Three Data Link Modes. There are three data
3. To ensure airman compliance with Federal
4. Operational Use of FIS. Regardless of the
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b. Non-FAA FIS Systems. Several commercial
1. Operators using non-FAA FIS data for
2. An example would be a NEXRAD radar
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1 minute/As Available
15 minutes
5 minutes
5 minutes
5 minutes
15 minutes
5 minutes
2.5 minutes
8 Hours/As Available
12 Hours
12 Hours
10 minutes
10 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
10 minutes
10 minutes
10 minutes
1 The
2 The
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500 NM look-ahead
500 NM look-ahead
750 NM look-ahead
1,000 NM look-
100 NM look-ahead
250 NM look-ahead
375 NM look-ahead
500 NM look-ahead
100 NM look-ahead
250 NM look-ahead
375 NM look-ahead
500 NM look-ahead
100 NM look-ahead
250 NM look-ahead
375 NM look-ahead
500 NM look-ahead
150 NM look-ahead
150 NM look-ahead
200 NM look-ahead
250 NM look-ahead
100 NM look-ahead
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3. These real-time systems are operationally
3 system, plus precipitation occurrence, type and
4. The information is transmitted over a discrete
5. AWOS information (system level, frequency,
c. AWOS Broadcasts. Computer-generated
e.g., weather remarks following the automated
1. Location and Time. The location/name and
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5. Remarks. If remarks are included in the
2. Visibility.
3. Weather. In the future, some AWOSs are to
4. Ceiling and Sky Cover.
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d. Automated Surface Observing System
FIG 7-1-7 and FIG 7-1-8.) The program to install
1. System Description.
2. Every ASOS/AWSS will contain the
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3. The ASOS/AWSS data outlets include:
4. An ASOS/AWOS/AWSS report without
5. There are two types of automated stations,
FIG 7-1-8.
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FIG 7-1-7
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FIG 7-1-8
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e. TBL 7-1-3 contains a comparison of weather
f. Service Standards. During 1995, a government/industry tea...
3. Service Level B is a service in which weather
1. Service Level D defines the minimum
i.e., no additional weather information is added by a
4. Service Level A, the highest and most
2. Service Level C is a service in which the
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7-1-13. Weather Radar Services
a. The National Weather Service operates a
b. Scheduled radar observations are taken hourly
10 minute longline RVR at precedented sites or
c. A clear radar display (no echoes) does not mean
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FIG 7-1-9
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FIG 7-1-10
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FIG 7-1-11
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d. All En Route Flight Advisory Service facilities
e. Additional information on weather radar
7-1-14. ATC Inflight Weather Avoidance
a. ATC Radar Weather Display.
1. ATC radars are able to display areas of
2. All ATC facilities using radar weather
3. ATC facilities that, due to equipment
4. ARTCC facilities normally use a Weather and
5. ATC radar is not able to detect turbulence.
b. Weather Avoidance Assistance.
1. To the extent possible, controllers will issue
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1. It is often necessary for ATC to restrict the amount of
2. The term "when able, proceed direct," in an ATC
2. For obvious reasons of safety, an IFR pilot
3. When the pilot requests clearance for a route
4. It should be remembered that the controller"s
5. It is very important, therefore, that the request
6. To a large degree, the assistance that might be
7. Obtaining IFR clearance or an ATC radar
c. Procedures for Weather Deviations and
1. When the pilot initiates communications with
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2. The pilot still retains the option of initiating
3. ATC will:
500 feet above or below that assigned if operating at
4. The pilot will follow the ATC advisory
5. If contact cannot be established or revised
121.5 MHz at suitable intervals stating: flight
10 NM of centerline.
7-1-15. Runway Visual Range (RVR)
a. RVR values are measured by transmissometers
1. Transmissometer projector and related items.
2. Transmissometer receiver (detector) and
3. Analog
4. recorder.
5. Signal data converter and related items.
6. Remote digital or remote display program-
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b. The transmissometer projector and receiver are
c. The signal data converter receives information
d. An RVR transmissometer established on a
250 foot baseline provides digital readouts to a
e. RVR values for Category IIIa operations extend
800 feet are reportable RVR increments. The
800 RVR reportable value covers a range of 701 feet
f. Approach categories with the corresponding
2,400 feet
1,800 feet*
1,000 feet
700 feet
150 feet
0 feet
g. Ten minute maximum and minimum RVR
h. Details on the requirements for the operational
i. RVR values are also measured by forward
1. Forward scatter meter with a transmitter,
2. A runway light intensity monitor (RLIM).
3. An ambient light sensor (ALS).
4. A data processor unit (DPU).
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5. 50-meter increments for products between
150 meters and 800 meters.
6. 100-meter increments for products between
800 meters and 1,200 meters.
7. 200-meter increments for products between
1,200 meters and 2,000 meters.
7-1-16. Reporting of Cloud Heights
a. Ceiling, by definition in the CFRs and as used
b. Pilots usually report height values above MSL,
c. In area forecasts or inflight advisories, ceilings
7-1-17. Reporting Prevailing Visibility
a. Surface (horizontal) visibility is reported in
4 2 4
7 miles, identify the obscuring atmospheric condition; e.g.,...
b. Prevailing visibility is the greatest visibility
c. When the prevailing visibility at the usual point
4 miles, certificated tower personnel will take
7-1-18. Estimating Intensity of Rain and
a. Rain
1. Light. From scattered drops that, regardless
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3. Heavy. Rapid accumulation on ground.
7-1-19. Estimating Intensity of Snow or
a. Light. Visibility more than 1/2 statute mile.
b. Moderate. Visibility from more than
c. Heavy. Visibility 1/4 statute mile or less.
7-1-20. Pilot Weather Reports (PIREPs)
a. FAA air traffic facilities are required to solicit
b. Pilots are urged to cooperate and promptly
c. PIREPs should be given to the ground facility
d. If pilots are not able to make PIREPs by radio,
1. The ATCT uses the reports to expedite the
2. The FSS uses the reports to brief other pilots,
3. The ARTCC uses the reports to expedite the
4. The NWS uses the reports to verify or amend
5. The NWS, other government organizations,
6. All air traffic facilities and the NWS forward
e. The FAA, NWS, and other organizations that
1. KCMH UA /OV APE 230010/TM 1516/FL085/TP
1. One zero miles southwest of Appleton VOR; time
1516 UTC; altitude eight thousand five hundred; aircraft
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3-letter station identifier
7-1-21. PIREPs Relating to Airframe Icing
a. The effects of ice on aircraft are cumulativethrust is re...
b. A pilot can expect icing when flying in visible
1. Trace. Ice becomes perceptible. Rate of
1 hour).
2. Light. The rate of accumulation may create
3. Moderate. The rate of accumulation is such
4. Severe. The rate of accumulation is such that
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2. Clear ice. A glossy, clear, or translucent ice formed by
3. The OAT should be requested by the FSS or ATC if not
1. Rime ice. Rough, milky, opaque ice formed by the
7-1-22. Definitions of Inflight Icing Terms
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0C, i.e., freezing rain or freezing drizzle.
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7-1-23. PIREPs Relating to Turbulence
5. Aircraft altitude or flight level.
a. When encountering turbulence, pilots are
6. Type of aircraft.
1. Aircraft location.
7. Duration of turbulence.
1. Over Omaha, 1232Z, moderate turbulence in clouds at
2. From five zero miles south of Albuquerque to three zero
2. Time of occurrence in UTC.
3. Turbulence intensity.
4. Whether the turbulence occurred in or near
b. Duration and classification of intensity should
2. Duration may be based on time
b. From 50 miles south of Albuquerque to 30 miles north of P...
1210Z to 1250Z, occasional Moderate
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7-1-24. Wind Shear PIREPs
a. Because unexpected changes in wind speed and
b. When describing conditions, use of the terms
1. Denver Tower, Cessna 1234 encountered wind shear,
2. Tulsa Tower, American 721 encountered wind shear on
1. Pilots who are not able to report wind shear in
2. Pilots using Inertial Navigation Systems
7-1-25. Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) PIREPs
7-1-26. Microbursts
a. Relatively recent meteorological studies have
b. Parent clouds producing microburst activity
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FIG 7-1-12
10-20 knots
c. The life cycle of a microburst as it descends in
d. Characteristics of microbursts include:
1. Size. The microburst downdraft is typically
2. Intensity. The downdrafts can be as strong
90 knot shear (headwind to tailwind change for a
3. Visual Signs. Microbursts can be found
4. Duration. An individual microburst will
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FIG 7-1-13
e. Microburst wind shear may create a severe
FIG 7-1-13. The aircraft may encounter a headwind
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FIG 7-1-14
f. Detection of Microbursts, Wind Shear and
1. FAA"s Integrated Wind Shear Detection
FIG 7-1-14.)
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FIG 7-1-15
2. Low Level Wind Shear Alert System
2,000 - 3,500 feet, but not more than 5,000 feet, from
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FIG 7-1-16
3. Terminal Doppler Weather Radar (TDWR).
3 miles on final approach and 2 miles out on
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34 airports across the nation, substantially increasing
5. Operational aspects of LLWAS, TDWR
4. Weather System Processor (WSP).
27A MBA 35K- 2MF 250 20
250 degrees at 20 knots.
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FIG 7-1-17
27A WSA 20K- 3MF 200 15
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FIG 7-1-18
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FIG 7-1-19
27A WSA 20K+ RWY 250 20
27D WSA 20K+ RWY 250 20
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6. The Terminal Weather Information for
FIG 7-1-20
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b. While some volcanoes in the U.S. are
d. Pilots should verbally transmit the data required
7-1-28. Thunderstorms
a. Turbulence, hail, rain, snow, lightning, sustained updraf...
7-1-27. PIREPs Relating to Volcanic Ash
a. Volcanic eruptions which send ash into the
c. Pilots should submit PIREPs regarding volcanic
b. There is no useful correlation between the
c. Weather radar, airborne or ground based, will
d. Turbulence beneath a thunderstorm should not
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4. Don"t fly without airborne radar into a cloud
e. The probability of lightning strikes occurring to
5. Don"t trust the visual appearance to be a
f. METAR reports do not include a descriptor for
g. Current weather radar systems are able to
1. Alert provided by an ATC facility to an aircraft:
2. Alert provided by an FSS:
7-1-29. Thunderstorm Flying
a. Thunderstorm Avoidance. Never regard any
1. Don"t land or takeoff in the face of an
2. Don"t attempt to fly under a thunderstorm
3. Don"t attempt to fly under the anvil of a
6. Don"t assume that ATC will offer radar
7. Don"t use data-linked weather next generation weather rad...
8. Do remember that the data-linked NEXRAD
15 to 20 minutes older than the age indicated on the
9. Do listen to chatter on the ATC frequency for
10. Do ask ATC for radar navigation guidance
11. Do use data-linked weather NEXRAD
12. Do advise ATC, when switched to another
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17. Do regard as extremely hazardous any
18. Do give a PIREP for the flight conditions.
19. Do divert and wait out the thunderstorms on
20. Do contact Flight Service for assistance in
b. If you cannot avoid penetrating a thunderstorm,
1. Tighten your safety belt, put on your shoulder
5. Establish power settings for turbulence
6. Turn up cockpit lights to highest intensity to
7. If using automatic pilot, disengage Altitude
8. If using airborne radar, tilt the antenna up and
c. Following are some Do"s and Don"ts during the
1. Do keep your eyes on your instruments.
2. Plan and hold the course to take the aircraft
2. Don"t change power settings; maintain
3. To avoid the most critical icing, establish a
3. Do maintain constant attitude. Allow the
4. Verify that pitot heat is on and turn on
4. Don"t turn back once you are in the
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7-1-30. Key to Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) and Aviation Routine...
FIG 7-1-21
0000Z on the 10th. Do not confuse with 1000Z!
60 degrees or more, Variability appended, e.g., 180V260
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FIG 7-1-22
2-digit date and 2-digit hour ending time
2-digit hour beginning time, and the 2-digit date and 2-digi...
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7-1-31. International Civil Aviation
a. Although the METAR code is adopted
1. Type of report.
2. ICAO Station Identifier.
3. Date and time of report.
4. Modifier (as required).
5. Wind.
6. Visibility.
7. Runway Visual Range (RVR).
8. Weather phenomena.
9. Sky conditions.
10. Temperature/dew point group.
11. Altimeter.
12. Remarks (RMK).
b. The following paragraphs describe the elements in a METAR...
1. Type of report. There are two types of
2. ICAO Station Identifier. The METAR
3. Date and Time of Report. The date and
172345Z (the 17 th day of the month at 2345Z)
4. Modifier (As Required). "AUTO" identifies a METAR/SPECI r...
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5. Wind. The wind is reported as a five digit
13008KT - wind from 130 degrees at 8 knots
08032G45KT - wind from 080 degrees at 32 knots with
00000KT - wind calm
210103G130KT - wind from 210 degrees at 103 knots with
32012G22KT 280V350
6. Visibility. Prevailing visibility is reported in
7SM - seven statute miles
15SM - fifteen statute miles
7. Runway Visual Range (When Reported).
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8. Weather Phenomena. The weather as
9. Sky Condition. The sky condition as
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1. "SKC" will be reported at manual stations. "CLR" will
12,000 feet are reported.
2. A ceiling layer is not designated in the METAR code.
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10 miles from the airport, DSNT will indicate
10. Temperature/Dew Point. Temperature
11. Altimeter. Altimeter settings are reported
12. Remarks. Remarks will be included in all
5 statute miles of the point of observation will be
10 statute miles will be reported in the vicinity, "VC."
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281250Z date 28th, time 1250 UTC
33018KT . wind three three zero at one
290V360 wind variable between
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041453Z date 4th, time 1453 UTC
3SM . visibility three
152228Z date 15th, time 2228 UTC
28024G36KT wind two eight zero at
c. Aerodrome Forecast (TAF). A concise statement of the expe...
0600Z, 1200Z, and 1800Z.
051130Z = date and time of origin (issuance time)
14008KT 5SM BR BKN030 = forecast meteorological conditions
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1. Type of Report. There are two types of TAF
2. ICAO Station Identifier. The TAF code
3. Date and Time of Origin. This element is
4. Valid Period Date and Time. The UTC
5. Forecast Meteorological Conditions. This
18010KT . wind one eight zero at one zero (wind is
35012G20KT wind three five zero at one two gust two
4SM - visibility four
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2,000 feet. Wind shear is encoded with the
d. Probability Forecast. The probability or
2100Z and 0200Z of
1000Z and 1400Z of
e. Forecast Change Indicators. The following
1. From (FM) group. The FM group is used
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21st, wind one four zero at one zero, visibility more than s...
2. Becoming (BECMG) group. The BECMG
3. Temporary (TEMPO) group. The TEMPO
1. SCT030 TEMPO 0519/0523 BKN030 - "three
2. 4SM HZ TEMPO 1900/1906 2SM BR HZ - "visibility
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7-2-1. General
a. The accuracy of aircraft altimeters is subject to
1. Nonstandard temperatures of the atmosphere.
2. Nonstandard atmospheric pressure.
3. Aircraft static pressure systems (position
4. Instrument error.
c. The adoption of a standard altimeter setting at
7-2-2. Procedures
a. Below 18,000 feet MSL.
1. When the barometric pressure is
31.00 inches Hg. or less. To the current reported
2. When the barometric pressure exceeds
31.00 inches Hg. The following procedures will be
31.00 inches will remain set throughout the approach. Aircra...
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300 feet higher.
b. At or above 18,000 feet MSL. To 29.92 inches of mercury (...
29.92 or higher
29.91 to 29.42
29.41 to 28.92
28.91 to 28.42
28.41 to 27.92
c. Where the minimum altitude, as prescribed in
14 CFR Section 91.159 and 14 CFR Section 91.177,
29.92 or higher
29.91 to 29.42
500 feet
29.41 to 28.92
1000 feet
28.91 to 28.42
1500 feet
28.41 to 27.92
2000 feet
27.91 to 27.42
2500 feet
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7-2-3. Altimeter Errors
a. Most pressure altimeters are subject to
1. Set the current reported altimeter setting on
2. Altimeter should now read field elevation if
3. Note the variation between the known field
b. Once in flight, it is very important to obtain
c. Temperature also has an effect on the accuracy
d. TBL 7-2-3, derived from ICAO formulas,
e. Pilots are responsible to compensate for cold
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7-2-4. High Barometric Pressure
a. Cold, dry air masses may produce barometric
b. When the barometric pressure exceeds
31.00 inches, air traffic controllers will issue the
1. En Route/Arrivals. Advise pilots to remain
2. Departures. Advise pilots to set 31.00 inches prior to re...
c. The altimeter error caused by the high pressure
7-2-5. Low Barometric Pressure
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7-3-1. General
a. Every aircraft generates a wake while in flight.
b. During ground operations and during takeoff,
7-3-2. Vortex Generation
100 feet of the vortex core.
FIG 7-3-1
7-3-3. Vortex Strength
a. The strength of the vortex is governed by the
b. Induced Roll
1. In rare instances a wake encounter could
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2. Counter control is usually effective and
FIG 7-3-2
3. The wake of larger aircraft requires the
7-3-4. Vortex Behavior
a. Trailing vortices have certain behavioral
1. An aircraft generates vortices from the
FIG 7-3-3.)
2. The vortex circulation is outward, upward
3. Flight tests have shown that the vortices from
4. When the vortices of larger aircraft sink close
3 knots. (See FIG 7-3-5.)
FIG 7-3-3
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FIG 7-3-4
FIG 7-3-5
FIG 7-3-6
3K Wind
0 (3K - 3K)
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5. There is a small segment of the aviation
b. A crosswind will decrease the lateral movement
FIG 7-3-7
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7-3-5. Operations Problem Areas
a. A wake encounter can be catastrophic. In 1972
c. Pilots should be particularly alert in calm wind
1. Remain in the touchdown area.
2. Drift from aircraft operating on a nearby
3. Sink into the takeoff or landing path from a
4. Sink into the traffic pattern from other airport
5. Sink into the flight path of VFR aircraft
d. Pilots of all aircraft should visualize the
7-3-6. Vortex Avoidance Procedures
a. Under certain conditions, airport traffic controllers app...
b. The following vortex avoidance procedures are
1. Landing behind a larger aircraft- same
2. Landing behind a larger aircraft- when
3. Landing behind a larger aircraft- crossing
4. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft- same runway. ...
5. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft- crossing runw...
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6. Departing behind a larger aircraft. Note
7-3-8. Pilot Responsibility
7. Intersection takeoffs- same runway. Be
8. Departing or landing after a larger
2 minutes has elapsed before your takeoff or landing.
9. En route VFR (thousand-foot altitude plus
500 feet). Avoid flight below and behind a large
7-3-7. Helicopters
a. Government and industry groups are making
b. Wake turbulence may be encountered by
c. Pilots are reminded that in operations conducted
1. Traffic information.
2. Instructions to follow an aircraft; and
3. The acceptance of a visual approach
d. For operations conducted behind super or
e. Super, heavy, and large jet aircraft operators
1. Pilots of aircraft that produce strong wake
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2. Pilots of aircraft that produce strong wake
f. Pilots operating lighter aircraft on visual
1. Pilots of lighter aircraft should fly on or
5 miles, 1,200 feet at 4 miles, and so on to touchdown.
2. If the pilot of the lighter following aircraft has
1,000 feet from the arrival end of the runway.
1,500-foot markings.
3. During visual approaches pilots may ask ATC
7-3-9. Air Traffic Wake Turbulence
a. Because of the possible effects of wake
1. Separation is applied to aircraft operating
2. Also, separation, measured at the time the
3. Additionally, appropriate time or distance
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b. A 3-minute interval will be provided when a
1. From an intersection on the same runway
2. In the opposite direction on the same runway
c. A 3-minute interval will be provided when a
1. From an intersection on the same runway
2. In the opposite direction on the same runway
d. A 4-minute interval will be provided for all
3-minute interval will be provided for all aircraft
e. Pilots may request additional separation (i.e.,
2 minutes instead of 4 or 5 miles) for wake turbulence
14 CFR Section 91.3(a) states: "The pilot-in-command of
f. Controllers may anticipate separation and need
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7-4-1. Migratory Bird Activity
a. Bird strike risk increases because of bird
b. The altitudes of migrating birds vary with winds
c. Considered the greatest potential hazard to
7-4-2. Reducing Bird Strike Risks
a. The most serious strikes are those involving
b. Engine ingestions may result in sudden loss of
c. Windshield strikes have resulted in pilots
d. When encountering birds en route, climb to
e. Avoid overflight of known areas of bird
7-4-3. Reporting Bird Strikes
7-4-4. Reporting Bird and Other Wildlife
a. Geographic location.
b. Bird type (geese, ducks, gulls, etc.).
c. Approximate numbers.
d. Altitude.
e. Direction of bird flight path.
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7-4-5. Pilot Advisories on Bird and Other
7-4-6. Flights Over Charted U.S. Wildlife
a. The landing of aircraft is prohibited on lands or
1. When forced to land due to an emergency
2. At officially designated landing sites; or
3. An approved official business of the Federal
b. Pilots are requested to maintain a minimum
c. Federal statutes prohibit certain types of flight
d. Federal regulations also prohibit airdrops by
1. Emergencies involving the safety of human
2. Threat of serious property loss.
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7-5-1. Accident Cause Factors
a. The 10 most frequent cause factors for general
1. Inadequate preflight preparation and/or
2. Failure to obtain and/or maintain flying
3. Failure to maintain direction control.
4. Improper level off.
5. Failure to see and avoid objects or
6. Mismanagement of fuel.
7. Improper inflight decisions or planning.
7-5-2. VFR in Congested Areas
8. Misjudgment of distance and speed.
7-5-3. Obstructions To Flight
9. Selection of unsuitable terrain.
a. General. Many structures exist that could
10. Improper operation of flight controls.
b. This list remains relatively stable and points out
c. Alertness. Be alert at all times, especially
d. Giving Way. If you think another aircraft is too
b. Antenna Towers. Extreme caution should be
1,500 feet horizontally from a structure; therefore, all
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c. Overhead Wires. Overhead transmission and
b. Pilots are urged to report any unmanned free
d. Other Objects/Structures. There are other
7-5-4. Avoid Flight Beneath Unmanned
a. The majority of unmanned free balloons
7-5-5. Unmanned Aircraft Systems
a. Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS), formerly
b. To ensure segregation of UAS operations from
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c. UAS operations may be approved at either
d. In addition to approved UAS operations
e. There are several factors a pilot should consider
7-5-6. Mountain Flying
a. Your first experience of flying over mountainous terrain ...
b. File a Flight Plan. Plan your route to avoid
c. Don"t fly a light aircraft when the winds aloft, at
d. Don"t fly near or above abrupt changes in
e. Understand Mountain Obscuration. The
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f. Some canyons run into a dead end. Don"t fly so
g. VFR flight operations may be conducted at
h. When landing at a high altitude field, the same
i. Effects of Density Altitude. Performance
29.92 inches of mercury) at sea level. However,
1. Density Altitude Advisories. At airports
2. These advisories are provided by air traffic
j. Mountain Wave. Many pilots go all their lives
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1. Mountain waves occur when air is being
2. Pilots from flatland areas should understand
3. When approaching a mountain ridge from the
a. Airspeed indicators in small airplanes are not
b. This "rule of thumb" is based on a uniform
c. This "rule of thumb" applies only to runway
7-5-7. Use of Runway Half-way Signs at
d. Use of this "rule of thumb" does not alleviate the
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7-5-8. Seaplane Safety
a. Acquiring a seaplane class rating affords access
FIG 7-5-1
b. Seaplane pilots must have a thorough understanding of the...
c. Unless they are under Federal jurisdiction,
d. When operating a seaplane over or into remote
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e. The FAA recommends that each seaplane owner
f. The FAA recommends that seaplane owners and
7-5-9. Flight Operations in Volcanic Ash
a. Severe volcanic eruptions which send ash and
b. Most important is to avoid any encounter with
c. It is recommended that pilots encountering an
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1. Disengage the autothrottle if engaged. This
3. Turn on all accessory airbleeds including all
h. When departing from airports where volcanic
d. The following has been reported by flightcrews
7-5-10. Emergency Airborne Inspection of
2. Turn on continuous ignition;
1. Smoke or dust appearing in the cockpit.
2. An acrid odor similar to electrical smoke.
3. Multiple engine malfunctions, such as
4. At night, St. Elmo"s fire or other static
5. A fire warning in the forward cargo area.
e. It may become necessary to shut down and then
f. If you see a volcanic eruption and have not been
g. When landing at airports where volcanic ash has
a. Providing airborne assistance to another aircraft
b. The pilot in the best position to assess the
c. Some of the safety considerations are:
1. Area, direction and speed of the intercept;
2. Aerodynamic effects (i.e., rotorcraft downwash);
3. Minimum safe separation distances;
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7-5-11. Precipitation Static
a. Precipitation static is caused by aircraft in flight
b. A review of pilot reports often shows different
1. Complete loss of VHF communications.
2. Erroneous magnetic compass readings
3. High pitched squeal on audio.
4. Motor boat sound on audio.
5. Loss of all avionics in clouds.
6. VLF navigation system inoperative most of
7. Erratic instrument readouts.
8. Weak transmissions and poor receptivity of
9. "St. Elmo"s Fire" on windshield.
c. Each of these symptoms is caused by one
d. Static dischargers work on the principal of
50 decibels (dB) static noise reduction which is
e. It is important to remember that precipitation
f. A wide variety of discharger designs is available
g. Each manufacturer of static dischargers offers
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h. In order to achieve full performance of avionic
7-5-12. Light Amplification by Stimulated
a. Lasers have many applications. Of concern to
e. Pilots should report laser illumination activity to
1. UTC Date and Time of Event.
2. Call Sign or Aircraft Registration Number.
3. Type Aircraft.
4. Nearest Major City.
5. Altitude.
6. Location of Event (Latitude/Longitude and/
7. Brief Description of the Event and any other
f. Pilots are also encouraged to complete the
b. FAA regulations prohibit the disruption of
g. When a laser event is reported to an air traffic
c. Pilots should be aware that illumination from
d. Recent and increasing incidents of unauthorized illuminat...
h. When these activities become known to the
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7-5-13. Flying in Flat Light, Brown Out
a. Flat Light. Flat light is an optical illusion, also
b. Brown Out. A brownout (or brown-out) is an
1. The following factors will affect the
2. The brownout phenomenon causes accidents
c. White Out. As defined in meteorological
d. Self Induced White Out. This effect typically
e. Never take off in a white out situation.
3. This is a dangerous phenomenon experienced
1. Realize that in flat light conditions it may be
4. Blowing sand and dust can cause an illusion
2. Flat light is common to snow skiers. One way
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3. So what should a pilot do when all visual
f. Landing in Low Light Conditions. When
g. Airport Landings.
1. Look for features around the airport or
2. Be cautious of snowdrifts and snow banks -
h. Off-Airport Landings.
1. In the event of an off-airport landing, pilots
2. It is difficult to determine the depth of snow
3. Abort landing if blowing snow obscures your
4. Exercise extreme caution when flying from
i. Flying Around a Lake.
1. When flying along lakeshores, use them as a
2. The same rules apply to seemingly flat areas
j. Other Traffic. Be on the look out for other
k. Ceilings. Low ceilings have caught many
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l. Glaciers. Be conscious of your altitude when
6. Always consider canceling or delaying a
7-5-14. Operations in Ground Icing
c. If you haven"t already developed a set of
a. The presence of aircraft airframe icing during
1. Procedures based on information that is
2. Concise and easy to understand guidance that
3. A systematic procedure for recognizing,
4. An aid (such as a checklist or reference cards)
d. There are several sources for guidance relating
b. The following recommendations are offered:
1. Ensure that your aircraft"s lift-generating
4. Advisory Circular (AC) 91-74, Pilot Guide,
2. Review and refresh your cold weather
3. Review and be familiar with the Airplane
4. Protect your aircraft while on the ground, if
5. Take full advantage of the opportunities
5. AC 135-17, Pilot Guide Small Aircraft
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7-5-15. Avoid Flight in the Vicinity of
a. Flight Hazards Exist Around Exhaust
b. When able, a pilot should steer clear of
FIG 7-5-2
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7-6-1. Aviation Safety Reporting Program
a. The FAA has established a voluntary Aviation
b. This cooperative safety reporting program
c. The report should give the date, time, location,
d. To ensure receipt of this information, the
e. The FAA utilizes the National Aeronautics and
7-6-2. Aircraft Accident and Incident
a. Occurrences Requiring Notification. The
1. An aircraft accident or any of the following
12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff
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2. An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have
b. Manner of Notification.
1. The most expeditious method of notification
c. Items to be Included in Notification. The
1. Type, nationality, and registration marks of
2. Name of owner and operator of the aircraft.
3. Name of the pilot-in-command.
4. Date and time of the accident, or incident.
5. Last point of departure, and point of intended
6. Position of the aircraft with reference to some
7. Number of persons aboard, number killed,
8. Nature of the accident, or incident, the
9. A description of any explosives, radioactive
d. Follow-up Reports.
1. The operator must file a report on NTSB
2. Each crewmember, if physically able at the
e. Where to File the Reports.
1. The operator of an aircraft must file with the
2. The NTSB Field Offices are listed under U.S.
7-6-3. Near Midair Collision Reporting
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d. Where to File Reports. Pilots and/or flight
1. By radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC
2. In writing, in lieu of the above, to the nearest
e. Items to be Reported.
1. Date and time (UTC) of incident.
2. Location of incident and altitude.
7-6-4. Unidentified Flying Object (UFO)
a. Persons wanting to report UFO/unexplained
b. If concern is expressed that life or property
3. Identification and type of reporting aircraft,
7-6-5. Safety Alerts For Operators (SAFO)
4. Identification and type of other aircraft,
a. SAFOs contain important safety information
5. Type of flight plans; station altimeter setting
6. Detailed weather conditions at altitude or
7. Approximate courses of both aircraft:
8. Reported separation in distance at first
9. Degree of evasive action taken, if any (from
10. Injuries, if any.
f. Investigation. The FSDO in whose area the
g. Existing radar, communication, and weather
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8-1-1. Fitness For Flight
a. Medical Certification.
1. All pilots except those flying gliders and free
2. The standards for medical certification are
3. Student pilots should visit an Aviation
b. Illness.
1. Even a minor illness suffered in day-to-day
2. The safest rule is not to fly while suffering
c. Medication.
1. Pilot performance can be seriously degraded
2. The CFRs prohibit pilots from performing
d. Alcohol.
1. Extensive research has provided a number of
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2. A consistently high alcohol related fatal
e. Fatigue.
1. Fatigue continues to be one of the most
2. A normal occurrence of everyday living,
3. Chronic fatigue occurs when there is not
f. Stress.
1. Stress from the pressures of everyday living
2. Most pilots do not leave stress "on the
g. Emotion.
h. Personal Checklist. Aircraft accident statistics show tha...
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i. PERSONAL CHECKLIST. I"m physically
8-1-2. Effects of Altitude
a. Hypoxia.
1. Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the
2. Although a deterioration in night vision
5,000 feet, other significant effects of altitude
15 minutes at 15,000 feet.
3. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet,
5 to 12 minutes at 20,000 feet, followed soon
4. The altitude at which significant effects of
5. The effects of hypoxire usually quite
6. Hypoxia is prevented by heeding factors that
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10,000 feet during the day, and above 5,000 feet at
b. Ear Block.
1. As the aircraft cabin pressure decreases
2. Either an upper respiratory infection, such as
3. An ear block produces severe ear pain and
4. An ear block is prevented by not flying with
5. If an ear block does not clear shortly after
c. Sinus Block.
1. During ascent and descent, air pressure in the
2. A sinus block can occur in the frontal sinuses,
3. A sinus block is prevented by not flying with
4. If a sinus block does not clear shortly after
d. Decompression Sickness After Scuba
1. A pilot or passenger who intends to fly after
2. The recommended waiting time before going
12 hours after diving which has not required
8,000 feet should be at least 24 hours after any
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8-1-3. Hyperventilation in Flight
a. Hyperventilation, or an abnormal increase in
b. The symptoms of hyperventilation subside
c. Early symptoms of hyperventilation and
8-1-4. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning in
a. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, and
b. Most heaters in light aircraft work by air
c. A pilot who detects the odor of exhaust or
8-1-5. Illusions in Flight
a. Introduction. Many different illusions can be
b. Illusions Leading to Spatial Disorientation.
1. Various complex motions and forces and
2. The leans. An abrupt correction of a banked
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3. Illusions Leading to Landing Errors.
8-1-6. Vision in Flight
a. Introduction. Of the body senses, vision is the
b. Vision Under Dim and Bright Illumination.
1. Under conditions of dim illumination, small
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2. In darkness, vision becomes more sensitive to
20 minutes under dim red cockpit lighting. Since red
3. Excessive illumination, especially from light
85 percent of visible light (15 percent transmittance)
c. Scanning for Other Aircraft.
1. Scanning the sky for other aircraft is a key
2. While the eyes can observe an approximate
200 degree arc of the horizon at one glance, only a
3. Studies show that the time a pilot spends on
4 to 5 seconds on the instrument panel for every
16 seconds outside. Since the brain is already trained
4. Pilots should realize that their eyes may
5. Effective scanning also helps avoid "emptyfield myopia." ...
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10 to 30 feet. For the pilot, this means looking
8-1-7. Aerobatic Flight
f. The above information provides pilots with a
a. Pilots planning to engage in aerobatics should
b. Forces experienced with a rapid push-over
c. Forces experienced with a rapid pull-up
d. In steep turns, the centrifugal forces tend to
e. Physiologically, humans progressively adapt to
8-1-8. Judgment Aspects of Collision
a. Introduction. The most important aspects of
b. Determining Relative Altitude. Use the
c. Taking Appropriate Action. Pilots should be
d. Consider Multiple Threats. The decision to
e. Collision Course Targets. Any aircraft that
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f. Recognize High Hazard Areas.
1. Airways, especially near VORs, and Class B,
2. Remember, most collisions occur during days
g. Cockpit Management. Studying maps,
h. Windshield Conditions. Dirty or bugsmeared windshields ca...
i. Visibility Conditions. Smoke, haze, dust, rain,
j. Visual Obstructions in the Cockpit.
1. Pilots need to move their heads to see around
2. Pilots must ensure curtains and other cockpit
k. Lights On.
1. Day or night, use of exterior lights can greatly
2. Keep interior lights low at night.
l. ATC Support. ATC facilities often provide
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9-1-1. General
9-1-2. Obtaining Aeronautical Charts
9-1-3. Selected Charts and Products
9-1-4. General Description of Each Chart
a. VFR Navigation Charts.
1. Sectional Aeronautical Charts. Sectional
2. VFR Terminal Area Charts (TAC). TACs
3. U.S. Gulf Coast VFR Aeronautical Chart.
13.7 nm/1:1,000,000. 55 x 27 inches folded to
5 x 10 inches. Revised annually.
4. Grand Canyon VFR Aeronautical Chart.
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FIG 9-1-1
FIG 9-1-2
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5. Caribbean VFR Aeronautical Charts.
13.7 nm/1:1,000,000. CAC-1, revised annually,
FIG 9-1-3
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6. Helicopter Route Charts. A three-color
FIG 9-1-4
b. IFR Navigation Charts.
1. IFR En Route Low Altitude Charts
20 nm. 50 x 20 inches folded to 5 x 10 inches. Charts
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FIG 9-1-5
FIG 9-1-6
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2. IFR En Route High Altitude Charts
18,000 feet MSL. This four-color chart series
FIG 9-1-7
FIG 9-1-8
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3. U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication
FIG 9-1-15.) The TPPs include:
4. Alaska Terminal Procedures Publication.
c. Planning Charts.
1. U.S. IFR/VFR Low Altitude Planning
2. Gulf of Mexico and Caribbean Planning
60 x 20 inches folded to 5 x 10 inches. Chart revised
3. Alaska VFR Wall Planning Chart. This
27.4 nm/1:2,000,000. The one sided chart is 58.5 x
40.75 inches and is designed for wall mounting. Chart
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FIG 9-1-9
FIG 9-1-10
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4. U.S. VFR Wall Planning Chart. This chart
FIG 9-1-11
5. Charted VFR Flyway Planning Charts.
d. Supplementary Charts and Publications.
1. Chart Supplement U.S. This 7-volume
2. Chart Supplement Alaska. This is a
3. Chart Supplement Pacific. This supplement is designed for...
4. North Atlantic Route Chart. Designed for
5-color chart shows oceanic control areas, coastal
150.8 nm/1:11,000,000. Chart is 29-3/4 x
20-1/2 inches, shipped folded to 5 x 10 inches only.
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FIG 9-1-12
6. Airport Obstruction Charts (OC). The
7. FAA Aeronautical Chart User"s Guide.
e. Digital Products.
5. North Pacific Route Charts. These charts
1 inch = 164 nm/1:12,000,000. 48 x 41-1/2 inches.
52 x 40-1/2 inches. All charts shipped unfolded.
FIG 9-1-13
1. The Digital Aeronautical Information CD
56 days and are available by subscription only.
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2. The Coded Instrument Flight Procedures
3. digital-Visual Charts (d-VC). These digital VFR charts ar...
FIG 9-1-14
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FIG 9-1-15
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9-1-5. Where and How to Get Charts of
a. National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency
1. Flight Information Publication (FLIP)
2. FLIP En Route Charts and Chart
3. FLIP Instrument Approach Procedures
4. Miscellaneous DOD Charts and Products.
b. Canadian Charts. Information on available
c. Mexican Charts. Information on available
15620 Mexico D.F.
d. International Civil Aviation Organization
999 University Street
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10-1-1. Helicopter Flight Control Systems
a. The certification requirements for helicopters to
b. Typically, these systems fall into the following
1. Aerodynamic surfaces, which impart some
2. Trim systems, which provide a cyclic
3. Stability Augmentation Systems (SASs),
4. Attitude Retention Systems (ATTs), which
5. Autopilot Systems (APs), which provide for
6. FDs, which provide visual guidance to the
c. In order to be certificated for IFR operation, a
d. In many cases, helicopters are certificated for
e. In addition, the RFM also typically defines
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f. The RFM also identifies other specific limitations associ...
1. Minimum equipment required for IFR flight
2. Vmini (minimum speed - IFR).
3. Vnei (never exceed speed - IFR).
4. Maximum approach angle.
5. Weight and center of gravity limits.
6. Aircraft configuration limitations (such as
7. Aircraft system limitations (generators,
8. System testing requirements (many avionics
9. Pilot action requirements (such as the pilot
g. It is very important that pilots be familiar with
h. During flight operations, pilots must be aware
i. Relief from the prohibition to takeoff with any
14 CFR Section 91.213 and 14 CFR Section 135.179,
14 CFR Section 61.58, Pilot-in-Command Proficiency Check: Op...
j. Experience has shown that modern AFCS/AP/
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10-1-2. Helicopter Instrument Approaches
a. Helicopters are capable of flying any published
14 CFR Part 97, Standard Instrument Approach
70 knots. If the helicopter is flown at higher speeds, it ma...
1. Helicopters flying conventional (non-
90 KIAS at the missed approach point (MAP) in
2. Helicopters flying Copter SIAPs may use the
3. Helicopters flying GPS Copter SIAPs must
4. TBL 10-1-1 summarizes these requirements.
5. Even with weather conditions reported at or
6. Pilots are cautioned to be prepared to execute
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1. Cockpit cutoff angle (the angle at which the cockpit or
90 KIAS when on a published
90 KIAS when on a published route
2. Combinations of high MDA/DH and low visibility
3. Type, configuration, and intensity of approach and
4. Type of obscuring phenomenon and/or windshield
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10-1-3. Helicopter Approach Procedures
a. Helicopter approaches may be developed for
1. Approach to a specific landing site. The
2. Approach to a Point-in-Space (PinS). At
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10-1-4. The Gulf of Mexico Grid System
a. On October 8, 1998, the Southwest Regional
90-80B, Approval of Offshore Standard Approach
1. The large number (over 300) of waypoints in
3 columns each. A three-letter identifier, identifying
2. In December 2009, significant improvements
3. Three requirements must be met for operators
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4. Operators who wish to benefit from ADS-B
5. FAA/AIS publishes the grid system waypoints on the IFR Gu...
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10-2-1. Offshore Helicopter Operations
a. Introduction
b. Passenger Management on and about
1. Background. Several incidents involving
2. Recommended Practices
c. Crane-Helicopter Operational Procedures
1. Background. Historical experience has
2. Recommended Practices
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d. Helicopter/Tanker Operations
1. Background. The interface of helicopters
2. Recommended Practices
e. Helideck/Heliport Operational Hazard
1. Background
f. Drilling Rig Perforating Operations:
1. Background. A critical step in the oil well
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2. Recommended Practices
1,000 feet) and will not land on the deck if the X is
g. Hydrogen Sulfide Gas Helideck/Heliport
1. Background. Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) gas:
2. Recommended Practices
FIG 10-2-1
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h. Gas Venting Helideck/Heliport Operational
1. Background. Ignited flare booms can release a large volum...
2. Pilots
3. Oil Field Supervisors
i. Helideck/Heliport Operational Warning(s)/Procedure(s) - C...
1. Background. A white "X" marked diagonally from corner to ...
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FIG 10-2-2
j. Offshore (VFR) Operating Altitudes for
1. Background. Mid-air collisions constitute
2. Recommended Practice Example
0 to 179
180 359
k. Offshore Helidecks/Landing Communications
1. Background. To enhance safety, and provide appropriate ti...
2. Recommended Practices
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1. See subparagraph 10-2-1d for Tanker Operations.
2. Private use Heliport. Offshore heliports are privately
l. Two (2) Helicopter Operations on Offshore
1. Background. Standardized procedures can
2. Recommended Practice. Helideck size,
3. Recommended Criteria
4. Weight and limitations markings on
m. Helicopter Rapid Refueling Procedures
1. Background. Helicopter Rapid Refueling
1990 edition, including 1993 HRR Amendment.
2. Recommended Practices
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1. Marine vessels, barges etc.: Vessel motion presents
2. See National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
10-2-2. Helicopter Night VFR Operations
a. Effect of Lighting on Seeing Conditions in
1. High lighting conditions exist when one of
50% illuminated; or
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2. Low lighting conditions are those that do not
3. Some areas may be considered a high lighting
4. Through the accumulation of night flying
b. Astronomical Definitions and Background
1. Definitions
2. Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations
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c. Information on Moon Phases and Changes in
FIG 10-2-3
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1. The percent of the Moon"s surface illuminated is a more r...
2. For practical purposes, phases of the Moon
3. For more detailed information, refer to the
d. Access to Astronomical Data for Determination of Moon Ris...
1. Astronomical data for the determination of
2. Click on "Data Services," and then on
3. You can obtain the times of sunrise, sunset,
4. Additionally, a yearly table may be
29 May 2007
5:34 a.m.
6:01 a.m.
12:58 p.m.
7:55 p.m.
8:22 p.m.
5:10 p.m. on preceding day
4:07 a.m.
6:06 p.m.
11:26 p.m.
4:41 a.m. on following day
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b. The information provided is largely based on
c. Information concerning the estimation of wind
d. Selecting a Scene LZ
1. If the situation requires the use of a helicopter,
FIG 10-2-4
2. For the purposes of FIG 10-2-4 the following are provided...
3. The LZ should be level, firm and free of loose
4. The LZ should be clear of people, vehicles
FIG 10-2-5
5. Keep spectators back at least 200 feet. Keep
6. Fire fighters (if available) should wet down
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e. Helping the Flightcrew Locate the Scene
1. If the LZ coordinator has access to a GPS unit,
2. Especially in daylight hours, mountainous
3. Flightcrews use a clock reference method for
12 o"clock, the right side is 3 o"clock, etc. When the
FIG 10-2-6
4. When the helicopter approaches the scene, it
f. Wind Direction and Touchdown Area
1. Determine from which direction the wind is
2. If contact can be established with the pilot,
3. Common natural sources of wind direction
4. Wind speed can be measured by small
5. If any obstacle(s) exist, ensure their description, posit...
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g. Night LZs
1. There are several ways to light a night LZ:
FIG 10-2-7
3. As in Day LZ operations, ensure radio contact
h. Ground Guide
1. When the helicopter is in sight, one person
2. The pilot will confirm the LZ sighting by
2. At night, spotlights, flood lights and hand
3. As the helicopter turns into the wind and
i. Assisting the Crew
1. After the helicopter has landed, do not
2. Be prepared to assist the crew by providing
3. Once the patient is prepared and ready to load,
4. When approaching or departing the helicopter, always be a...
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5. The tail rotor poses a special threat to
j. General Rules
1. When working around helicopters, always
2. To prevent injury or damage from the main
3. If the helicopter landed on a slope, approach
4. When the helicopter is loaded and ready for
4. Hazardous chemicals and gases may be fatal
5. Upon initial radio contact, the helicopter crew
6. Poisonous or irritating gases may cling to a
l. Hand Signals
1. If unable to make radio contact with the
FIG 10-2-8
k. Hazardous Chemicals and Gases
1. Responding to accidents involving hazardous
2. Hazardous materials of concern are those
3. The helicopter ambulance crew must be told
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m. Emergency Situations
1. In the event of a helicopter accident in the
250 gallons of fuel, depending upon the size of the
10-2-4. Emergency Medical Service (EMS)
a. Background. EMS helicopter operators often
b. Recommended Procedures.
1. Landing Zone Operations. The first helicopter to arrive o...
123.025, they should contact the ground unit for
FIG 10-2-9.)
2. Hospital Operations. Because many
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FIG 10-2-9
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a. This Glossary was compiled to promote a common understand...
b. Because of the international nature of flying, terms used...
c. This Glossary will be revised, as necessary, to maintain ...
d. Terms Added:
e. Terms Deleted:
f. Terms Modified:
g. Editorial/format changes were made where necessary. Revis...
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90 degrees to the right or left of the aircraft track.
a. Traffic advisories.
b. Vectors, when requested by the pilot, to assist
c. Altitude deviation information of 300 feet or
d. Advisories that traffic is no longer a factor.
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e. Weather and chaff information.
f. Weather assistance.
g. Bird activity information.
h. Holding pattern surveillance. Additional services are pro...
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a. Sectional Aeronautical Charts (1:500,000)-
b. VFR Terminal Area Charts (1:250,000)-
c. En Route Low Altitude Charts- Provide
d. En Route High Altitude Charts- Provide
e. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Charts-
f. Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) Charts-
g. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Charts-
h. Airport Taxi Charts- Designed to expedite the
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14 CFR Part 91.3(a) states: "The pilot in command
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a. Preventing collisions:
1. Between aircraft; and
2. On the maneuvering area between aircraft
b. Expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of
a. Central Altitude Reservation Function
b. Airport Reservation Office (ARO). Monitors
c. U.S. Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) Office.
d. Weather Unit. Monitor all aspects of weather
a. Flight Information Service.
b. Alerting Service.
c. Air Traffic Advisory Service.
d. Air Traffic Control Service:
1. Area Control Service,
2. Approach Control Service, or
3. Airport Control Service.
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a. Category A- Speed less than 91 knots.
b. Category B- Speed 91 knots or more but less
c. Category C- Speed 121 knots or more but less
d. Category D- Speed 141 knots or more but less
e. Category E- Speed 166 knots or more.
a. Super. The Airbus A-380-800 (A388) and the
b. Heavy- Aircraft capable of takeoff weights of
300,000 pounds or more whether or not they are
c. Large- Aircraft of more than 41,000 pounds,
d. Small- Aircraft of 41,000 pounds or less
12 nautical miles. A Blue alert is used for conflicts
a. Reduced separation between aircraft which is
b. ASLAR procedures shall be covered in a Letter
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a. Approach Light System (ALS)- An airport
1. ALSF-1- Approach Light System with
2. ALSF-2- Approach Light System with
3. SSALF- Simplified Short Approach Light
4. SSALR- Simplified Short Approach Light
5. MALSF- Medium Intensity Approach Light
6. MALSR- Medium Intensity Approach Light
7. RLLS- Runway Lead-in Light System
8. RAIL- Runway Alignment Indicator Lights-
9. ODALS- Omnidirectional Approach Lighting System consists ...
b. Runway Lights/Runway Edge Lights- Lights
c. Touchdown Zone Lighting- Two rows of
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b. Nonprecision instrument.
c. Precision instrument.
d. Runway Centerline Lighting- Flush centerline
e. Threshold Lights- Fixed green lights arranged
f. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)- Two
g. Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)- An
h. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)- An
i. Boundary Lights- Lights defining the perimeter
a. Visual.
a. ASDE-3- a Surface Movement Radar.
b. ASDE-X- a system that uses an X-band
c. Airport Surface Surveillance Capability
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a. Indicated Airspeed- The speed shown on the
b. True Airspeed- The airspeed of an aircraft
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a. MSL Altitude- Altitude expressed in feet
b. AGL Altitude- Altitude expressed in feet
c. Indicated Altitude- The altitude as shown by an
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a. Regarding flight over the high seas: the relevant
b. Regarding flight over other than the high seas:
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a. STANDARD T- An RNAV approach whose
b. MODIFIED T- An RNAV approach design for
c. STANDARD I- An RNAV approach design for
2. LEFT BASE AREA- A 30NM arc centered
30NM from the IAF and is bounded on the other side
3. RIGHT BASE AREA- A 30NM arc centered
30NM from the IAF and is bounded on the other side
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a. Radar (See RADAR.)
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a. ARTS IIIA. The Radar Tracking and Beacon
b. Common ARTS. Includes ARTS IIE, ARTS
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a. Autorotative Landing/Touchdown Autorotation. Used by a pi...
b. Low Level Autorotation. Commences at an
100 feet AGL and is used primarily for tactical
c. 180 degrees Autorotation. Initiated from a
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6,000, 7,000, FL 250, FL 260, FL 270.
6,000 meters (20,000 feet) covering more than half
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a. Light Chop" Turbulence that causes slight,
b. Moderate Chop" Turbulence similar to Light
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a. Taxiing aircraft, which is approaching a
b. A pilot or controller may consider an aircraft,
c. Pilots and controllers shall exercise good
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a. Outer Compass Locator (LOM)- A compass
b. Middle Compass Locator (LMM)- A compass
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a. Establish communication with (followed by the
b. A flight condition wherein the pilot ascertains
a. Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers
b. Controlled airspace is also that airspace within
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c. Controlled airspace in the United States is
1. CLASS A- Generally, that airspace from
18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL 600,
2. CLASS B- Generally, that airspace from the
3. CLASS C- Generally, that airspace from the
4. CLASS D- Generally, that airspace from the
5. CLASS E- Generally, if the airspace is not
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a. The intended direction of flight in the horizontal
b. The ILS localizer signal pattern usually
a. When used concerning the traffic pattern, the
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b. When used concerning wind conditions, the
a. An airport clearance limit at locations with a
b. An airport clearance limit at locations that are
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3. The required visual reference means that section of
1. Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea
2. Category II and III minimre expressed as a DH
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a. A departure from a current clearance, such as an
b. Where specifically authorized in the CFRs and
a. True- A predetermined desired course direction
b. Magnetic- A predetermined desired course
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0100, 1200, 7700. Nondiscrete codes are normally
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a. Conventional STARs/SIDs. The portion of a
b. RNAV STARs/SIDs. The portion of a STAR
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a. Returning an aircraft to base.
b. Delivering an aircraft from one location to
c. Moving an aircraft to and from a maintenance
a. Terminal Area Delay. A delay within a terminal
b. Special Use Airspace Delay. A delay within a
c. Aerial Refueling Delay. A delay within an
a. At the end of the last procedure turn, base turn
b. At the point of interception of the last track
1. A landing can be made; or
2. A missed approach procedure is initiated.
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a. Instruments are inoperative or otherwise not
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b. Signal strength or quality of the received signal
a. Flight Information Service. A service provided
b. Alerting Service. A service provided to notify
25,000 feet; FL 255, an indication of 25,500 feet.
a. When set to a QNH altimeter setting, will
b. When set to a QFE altimeter setting, will
c. When set to a pressure of 1013.2 hPa
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a. Investigating the operation/flight characteristics of an ...
b. Evaluating an applicant for a pilot certificate or
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a. A standard formation is one in which a
b. Nonstandard formations are those operating
1. When the flight leader has requested and ATC
2. When operating within an authorized altitude
3. When the operations are conducted in
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a. Electronic components emitting signals which
b. Visual ground aids, such as VASI, which
c. PAR. Used by ATC to inform an aircraft making
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25 Nautical Miles (NM). More stringent standards
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3 and 30 MHz.
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20 knots. The actual height may vary, and some
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3LD is an exclusive designator that, when used
a. Rime Ice- Rough, milky, opaque ice formed by
b. Clear Ice- A glossy, clear, or translucent ice
c. Mixed- A mixture of clear ice and rime ice.
a. Trace- Ice becomes perceptible. Rate of
b. Light- The rate of accumulation may create a
c. Moderate- The rate of accumulation is such that
d. Severe- The rate of ice accumulation is such
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2. Special Authorization Category I. An ILS
a. IIIA.-An ILS approach procedure which
b. IIIB.-An ILS approach procedure which
c. IIIC.-An ILS approach procedure which
4,300 feet and at least 3,000 feet where independent
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5NM separation. 3NM separation, 1 1/2NM
a. A two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach
b. A three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach
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a. U.S. civil standard instrument approach
b. U.S. military standard instrument approach
c. Special instrument approach procedures are
a. Localizer.
b. Glideslope.
c. Outer Marker.
d. Middle Marker.
e. Approach Lights.
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a. Nonprecision Approach Runway- An instrument runway served...
b. Precision Approach Runway, Category I- An
800 m.
c. Precision Approach Runway, Category II- An
400 m.
d. Precision Approach Runway, Category III- An
1. Intended for operations down to an RVR of
2. Intended for operations down to an RVR of
3. Intended for operations without reliance on
a. An airport of entry which has been designated
b. A landing rights airport at which specific
c. Airports designated under the Convention on
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a. A point defined by any combination of courses,
b. Used to describe the point where two runways,
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a. Straight-in landing minimums. A statement of
b. Circling minimums. A statement of MDA and
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100-110 kHz frequency band. In 2010, the U.S. Coast
a. An uplink which transmits command instructions to the air...
b. A downlink which transmits the status of the
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a. Concerning altitude/flight level, the term
e.g., "descend and maintain 5,000."
b. Concerning other ATC instructions, the term is
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1300 Hz tone, which is received aurally and visually
14 CFR Part 97, the following minimum IFR
a. In designated mountainous areas, 2,000 feet
b. Other than mountainous areas, 1,000 feet above
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c. As otherwise authorized by the Administrator
a. The minimum altitude specified in 14 CFR
b. Altitudes depicted on approach charts which
1. Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA). Altitudes
1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 25-mile
2. Emergency Safe Altitude (ESA). Altitudes
1,000 feet of obstacle clearance in nonmountainous
a. A maneuver conducted by a pilot when an
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b. A term used by the pilot to inform ATC that
c. At locations where ATC radar service is
10, corresponding to four different interrogation
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a. T- Terminal.
b. L- Low altitude.
c. H- High altitude.
a. RNP specification. A navigation specification
b. RNAV specification. A navigation specification based on a...
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a. Previously issued traffic is not in sight. It may
b. They were unable to contact ATC on a
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a. Nonradar Approach. Used to describe
b. Nonradar Approach Control. An ATC facility
c. Nonradar Arrival. An aircraft arriving at an
d. Nonradar Route. A flight path or route over
e. Nonradar Separation. The spacing of aircraft in
a. Common Route/Portion. That segment of a
b. Noncommon Route/Portion. That segment of a
c. Inland Navigation Facility. A navigation aid on
d. Coastal Fix. A navigation aid or intersection
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a. I Distribution- Distribution by means of
b. II Distribution- Distribution by means other
c. FDC NOTAM- A NOTAM regulatory in
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a. Runway OFZ. The runway OFZ is a defined
1. For runways serving large airplanes, the
2. For runways serving only small airplanes:
b. Inner-approach OFZ. The inner-approach OFZ
c. Inner-transitional OFZ. The inner transitional
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a. Used to indicate that an aircraft is established on
b. Used by ATC to advise a pilot making a radar
a. They are following the same track in reciprocal
b. Their tracks are parallel and the aircraft are
c. Their tracks intersect at an angle of more than
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50-70 mile radius from a meter fix, usually in high
a. The radio contact required of the pilot.
b. The speed to be maintained.
c. An initial approach 3 to 5 miles in length.
d. An elliptical pattern consisting of two 180
e. A break point at which the first 180 degree turn
f. The direction of turns.
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g. Altitude (at least 500 feet above the conventional patter...
h. A "Roll-out" on final approach not less than 1/4
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10,000 feet AGL.
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a. LIGHT (< 26 dBZ)
b. MODERATE (26 to 40 dBZ)
c. HEAVY (> 40 to 50 dBZ)
d. EXTREME (> 50 dBZ)
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4,000 feet.)
3 miles ahead and 25 degrees left and right of the
a. Preferential Departure Route (PDR). A specific
b. Preferential Arrival Route (PAR). A specific
c. Preferential Departure and Arrival Route
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a. An obstacle which stands out beyond the
b. An obstacle, not characterized as low and close
c. An obstacle beyond 10NM from an airport/heliport that req...
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090-179, SW quadrant 180-269, NW quadrant
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a. Primary Radar- A radar system in which a
b. Secondary Radar/Radar Beacon (ATCRBS)- A
a. Primary Radar- Radar system which uses
b. Secondary Radar- Radar system wherein a
a. Provides radar ATC services to aircraft
1. Army Radar Approach Control (ARAC)
2. Radar Air Traffic Control Facility (RATCF)
3. Radar Approach Control (RAPCON) (Air
4. Terminal Radar Approach Control
5. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) (FAA).
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a. Used by ATC to inform an aircraft that it is
b. The term used to inform the controller that the
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a. Radar Monitoring- The radar flight-following
b. Radar Navigational Guidance- Vectoring
c. Radar Separation- Radar spacing of aircraft in
a. Monitoring- The use of radar for the purpose of
b. Separation- The separation used when aircraft
a. An aircraft cancels its IFR flight plan, except
b. An aircraft conducting an instrument, visual, or
c. An arriving VFR aircraft, receiving radar
d. An aircraft completes a radar approach.
a. A device used for communication.
b. Used to refer to a flight service station; e.g.,
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a. Required Navigation Performance Level or
b. Required Navigation Performance (RNP)
c. Actual Navigation Performance (ANP). A
d. Estimated Position Error (EPE). A measure of
e. Lateral Navigation (LNAV). A function of area
f. Vertical Navigation (VNAV). A function of area
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1, Runway 25.
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d. Free of objects, except for objects that need to
a. Cleared, graded, and have no potentially
b. Drained by grading or storm sewers to prevent
c. Capable, under dry conditions, of supporting
a. Conventional STARs/SIDs. The portion of a
b. RNAV STARs/SIDs. Defines a path(s) from
a. Formal Runway Use Program- An approved
b. Informal Runway Use Program- An approved
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a. Terrain/Obstruction Alert- A safety alert issued
b. Aircraft Conflict Alert- A safety alert issued by
a. ALERT- An actual situation involving two real
1. Alerts generated by one or more false
2. Alerts in which the safety logic software did
3. The alert is generated by surface radar targets
c. NUISANCE ALERT- An alert in which one or
1. The alert is generated by a known situation
2. The alert is generated by inaccurate secondary radar data...
3. One or more of the aircraft involved in the
d. VALID NON-ALERT- A situation in which
e. INVALID NON-ALERT- A situation in which
a. They are following the same track in the same
b. Their tracks are parallel and the aircraft are
c. Their tracks intersect at an angle of less than 45
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a. Initial Approach- The segment between the
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b. Intermediate Approach- The segment between
c. Final Approach- The segment between the final
d. Missed Approach- The segment between the
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4,300-feet between centerlines. Aircraft are permitted to pa...
3,000 feet, at the offset MAP. From the offset MAP
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a. Alert Area- Airspace which may contain a high
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b. Controlled Firing Area- Airspace wherein
c. Military Operations Area (MOA)- Permanent
d. Prohibited Area- Airspace designated under
14 CFR Part 73 within which no person may operate
e. Restricted Area- Permanent and temporary
f. Warning Area- A warning area is airspace of
a. "Increase/reduce speed to Mach point
b. "Increase/reduce speed to (speed in knots)" or
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a. Substitute routes which are shown on U.S.
b. Routes defined by ATC as specific NAVAID
c. Routes defined by ATC as direct to or between
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a. Generally, any discrete object which reflects or
b. Specifically, an object of radar search or
a. Between the edges of two primary targets or the
b. Between the end of the beacon control slash and
c. Between the ends of two beacon control slashes.
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a. Basic Radar Service- These services are
b. TRSA Service- This service provides, in
c. Class C Service- This service provides, in
d. Class B Service- This service provides, in
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a. The point at which an aircraft first makes
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b. Concerning a precision radar approach (PAR),
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a. A term used by a controller to transfer radar
1. In response to a handoff or point out,
2. In anticipation of a handoff or point out, or
3. In conjunction with a request for control of an
b. A term used by ATC to refer to one or more
a. Visual observation.
b. Observation of radar identified and nonidentified aircraf...
c. Verbal reports from pilots or other facilities.
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a. Upwind Leg- A flight path parallel to the
b. Crosswind Leg- A flight path at right angles to
c. Downwind Leg- A flight path parallel to the
d. Base Leg- A flight path at right angles to the
e. Final Approach- A flight path in the direction
a. The general term that describes the change from
b. A published procedure (DP Transition) used to
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a. Light - Causes slight, erratic changes in altitude
b. Moderate- Similar to Light but of greater
c. Severe- Causes large, abrupt changes in altitude
d. Extreme- The aircraft is violently tossed about
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e.g., "verify assigned altitude."
108 to 118 MHz, are used for certain NAVAIDs; 118
a. An IFR aircraft requests a climb/descent in
b. The clearance will result in noise abatement
c. A pilot has requested a practice instrument
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a. Flight Visibility- The average forward horizontal distanc...
b. Ground Visibility- Prevailing horizontal visibility near ...
c. Prevailing Visibility- The greatest horizontal
d. Runway Visibility Value (RVV)- The visibility
e. Runway Visual Range (RVR)- An instrumentally derived valu...
1. Touchdown RVR- The RVR visibility
2. Mid-RVR- The RVR readout values obtained
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3. Rollout RVR- The RVR readout values
a. Flight Visibility- The visibility forward from
b. Ground Visibility- The visibility at an
c. Runway Visual Range [RVR]- The range over
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a. The tower controller sees the aircraft involved
b. A pilot sees the other aircraft involved and upon
360 degrees in azimuth, oriented from magnetic
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a. In conjunction with ATC instructions, gives the
b. In conjunction with a weather deviation
c. Once a maneuver has been initiated, the pilot is
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a. As a request: "Communication is difficult.
b. As information: "Since communications are
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4-3-32, 7-1-24
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4-3-13, 7-1-50
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5-5-1, 6-1-1, 7-3-6
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5-1-30, 5-5-7
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800 Independence Ave., S.W.
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